Bacteriology Review Questions: Aerobic Gram Negative Bacteria

In suspected cases of brucellosis, the optimal specimen to be collected for the isolation of the etiologic agent is?

A. Blood
B. Urine
C. Cerbrospinal fluid
D. Nasopharyngeal exudates

The majority of clinical isolates of Klebsiella are

A. K. ozanae
B. K. pneumoniae
C. K. aerognes
D. K. oxytoca

The enterotoxins of both vibrio cholerae O 1 and noninvasive (toxigenic) strains of Escherichia coli produce serious diarrhea by what mechanisms?

A. Stimulation of adenylate cyclase, which gives rise to excessive fluid secretion by the cells of the small intestine
B. Penetration of the bowel mucosa
C. Stimulation of colicin production
D. Elaboration of dermonectrotizing toxin

Colonies of Neisseria sp. turn color when redox reagent is applied. The color change is indicative of the activity of the beacterial enzyme

A. Beta-galactosidase
B. Urease
C. Cytochrome oxidase
D. Phenylalanine deaminase

Which of the following is not true of Shigella sonnei?

A. Large numbers of organisms must be ingested to produce disease.
B. The organism produces an inflammatory condition in the large ingesting with bloody diarrhea.
C. The organism produces disease most commonly in the pediatric population.
D. The organism is delayed lactose fermeneter.

An environmental sampling study of respiratory therapy equipment produced cultures of a yellow, nonfermentative (at 48 hours), gram-negative bacillus from several of the nebulizers, which would most likely be species of

A. Chryseobacterium
B. Pseudomonas
C. Alcaligenes
D. Moraxella

The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and nonmotile best describe which organism?

A. Proteus vulgaris
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Salmonella enterica
D. Shigella dysenteriae

A fermentative gram-negative bacillus that is oxidase positive, motile, and grows well on MacConkey agar is

A. Aeromonas hydrophila
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

Fecal cultures are inoculated on thiosulfate-citrate-bil salts-sucrose agar specifically for the isolation of

A. Shigella
B. Vibrio
C. Campylobacter
D. Salmonella

The K antigen of the family Enterobacteriaceae is

A. Heat labile
B. The somatic antigen
C. Located on the flagellum
D. The antigen used to group Shigella

The causative agent of melioidosis is

A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Burkholderia pseudomallei
C. Moraxella catarrhalis
D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

Which microorganism will grow only on culture media supplemented with either cysteine or cystine?

A. Actinobacillus lignieresii
B. Bartonella bacilliformis
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Kingella kingae

A culture of a decubitus ulcer grew a gram-negative facultative bacillus. On TSI it produced an acid slant, acid butt, and gas. Test reactions in other media were as follows:

Citrate - negative
Indole - positive
Urease - negative
ONPG - positive
Voges-Proskauer - negative

The organism was identified as:

A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Citrobacter (diversus) koseri
D. Providenvia stuartii

An example of an oxidase-positive, glucose nonfermenting organism is
A. Aeromonas hydrophilia
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A fastidious gram-negative bacillus was isolated from a case of periodontal disease, which upon darkfield examination was noted to have gliding motility. The most likely identification of this etiologic agent would be

A. Capnocytophaga
B. Chromobacterium
C. Kingella
D. Plesiomonas

The species of Vibrio closely associated with rapidly progressing wound infections seen in patients with underlying liver disease is

A. V. alginolytiucs
B. V. cholerae
C. V. vulnificus
D. V. parahaemolyticus

Severe disseminated intravascular coagulation often complicates cases of septicemia caused by

A. Acinetobacter sp.
B. Moraxella sp.
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Neisseria meningitidis

The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine protects against which serotype?

A. Serotype a
B. Serotype b
C. Serotype c
D. Serotype d

Salmonella Typhi exhibits a characteristic of biochemical pattern, which differentiates it from the other salmonellae. Which of the following is not characteristic of S. Typhi?

A. Large amounts of H2S are produced in TSI agar.
B. Agglutination in Vi grouping serum
C. Lysine decarboxylase positive
D. Citrate negative

THe sexually acquired disease characteristerized by genital ulcers and tender inguinal lymphphadenopathy, which is caused by a small, gram-negative bacillus, is known as

A. Chancroid
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Syphilis
D. Trachoma

Which of the following diseases is most likely to be acquired from a hot tub or whirlpool?

A. Q fever
B. Erysipelas
C. Acintetobacter cellulitis
D. Pseudomonas dermatitis

Campylobacter spp. are associated most frequently with cases of

A. Osteomyelitis
B. Gastroenteritis
C. Endocarditis
D. Appendicitis

An organism occasionally misidentified as an enteric pathogen because it produces a large amount of H2S is

A. Burkholderia cepacia
B. Burkholderia pseudomallei
C. Pseudomonas putida
D. Shewanella putrefaciens

The etiologic agent of whooping cough is

A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Brucella suis
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Haemophilus ducreyi

An important characteristic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae or the infection it produces is

A. A gram stain of the organism reveals gram-negative bacilli.
B. Asymptomatic infections are common in females.
C. Produces disease in humans and domestic animals.
D. The bacteria survive long periods outside the host's body.

A gram-negative, "kidney bean" cellular morphology is a distinguishing characteristic of

A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Bartonella spp.
D. Acintobacter spp.

Which of the following nonfermenters is rarely isolated in the U.S.?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C. Burkholderia mallei
D. Burkholderia cepacia

Erythromycin eye drops are routinely administered to infants to prevent infections by

A. E. coli
B. Haemopilus influenzae
C. Psuedomonas aeruginosa
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Neisseria lactamica closely resembles Neisseria meningitidis but can be differentiated from it by its ability to metabolize

A. Maltose
B. Lactose
C. Glucose
D. Sucrose

A causative agent of the form of conjunctivitis known as pinkeye is

A. Haemophilus aegyptius
B. Moraxella lacunata
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Klebsiella ozaenae

A single species in the genus Hafnia is

A. alvei
B. gergoviae
C. ruckeri
D. tarda

Acinetobacter baumannii

A. Requires cysteine
B. Is oxidase negative
C. Ferments glucose
D. Does not grow on MacConkey agar

Legionella pneumophilia is the etiologic agent of both Legionnaires disease and

A. Swine fever
B. Pontiac fever
C. Rift Valley fever
D. San Joaquin Valley fever

In suspected cases of brucellosis, what is the most sensitive specimen to submit for culture?

A. Bone marrow
B. Nasopharyngeal swab
C. Sputum
D. Stool

Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a complication after infection with

A. E. coli O157:H7
B. Salmonella Typhi
C. Vibrio cholerae O1
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

Identify the fermentative agent that may infect retiles and fish as well as humans when they are exposed to fcontaminated soil or water.

A. Aeromonas
B. Chromobacterium
C. Chryseobacterium
D. Enterobacter

Campylobacter jejuni is

A. Nonmotile
B. Oxidase negative
C. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
D. A straight gram-negative bacillus

Which of the following has a negative oxidase test?

A. Aeromonas
B. Chryseobacterium
C. Hafnia
D. Vibrio

Which of the following is true of most Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A. Adversely affected by fatty acids in clinical specimens
B. Rapid growth on sheep blood agar
C. Ferments glucose and maltose
D. ONPG negative

The method of serogrouping Shigella used in the clinical laboratory is based on

A. Bacteriocins
B. H antigens
C. K antigens
D. O antigens

The symptom of diffuse, watery diarrhea that produces a relatively clear stool containing mucus flecks is suggestive of an infection caused by

A. Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli
B. Shigella dysenteriae
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

An example of a halophilic microorganism is

A. Morganella morganii
B. Plesiomonas shigelloides
C. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
D. Yersinia pestis

Which of the following statements is not true of Brucella?

A. Infection may occur via abrasions of the oral mucosa, conjunctiva, and genitals.
B. They are fastidious and require supplemented media for isolation.
C. The risk of accidental laboratory infection is no greater than with any other organism.
D. Phage and dye sensitivity tests are used for identification to the species level.

Infection of the gastric mucosa leading to gastritis or peptic ulcers is most commonly associated with

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella sonnei

Which of the following does not describe Acinetobacter sp.?

A. Commonly susceptible to most antimicrobials
B. Generally coccobacillary in morphology
C. Oxidase negative
D. Infections associated with use of medical devices

Explosive watery diarrhea with severe abdominal pain after eating raw shellfish is most characteristic of infection caused by

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Vibrio parahemolyticus

An unheated suspension of Salmonella Typhi typically produces agglutination of Vi antisera. After heating the same suspension, agglutination will occur in which grouping sera?

A. A
B. B
C. C1
D. D

The species of Campylobacter noted to produce septicemia, septic arthritis, meningitis, jaundice with hepatomegaly, and thrombophlebitis in debilitated patients is

A. C. coli
B. C. fetus
C. C. laris
D. C. sputorum

Shigella sonnei is differentiated from other Shigella sp. by

A. A positive ONPG
B. Its positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction
C. Its negative oxidase reaction
D. Its ability to demonstrate motility at 22C

A positive Voges-Proskauer reaction is characteristic of

A. Enterobacter aerogenes
B. Escherichia coli
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Providencia rettgeri

Which of the following is not true regarding virulent strains of Vibrio cholerae?

A. Adherent to enterocytes
B. Mucinase production
C. Nonmotile
D. Toxigenic

The classic toxigenic strains of which serogroup are implicated in epidemic infections of Vibrio cholerae?

A. O1
B. O2
C. O3
D. O4

Brucella spp. are

A. The etiologic agents of relapsing fever
B. Small spiral organisms
C. Primarily a cause of endogenous human infections
D. Intracellular pathogens

Which of the following reactions is typical for Escherichia coli?

A. Beta-hemolytic on sheep blood agar
B. Colorless colonies on MacConkey agar
C. Colorless colonies on xylose-lysine-desoxychocolate agar
D. Green colonies with black centers on Hektoen agar

Yersinia pestis is characteristically

A. Urease negative
B. Hydrogen sulfide positive
C. Motile at 20-25 C
D. Oxidase positive

Lack of motility is characteristic of

A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Klebsiella oxytoca
C. Morganella morganii
D. Providencia stuartii

In cases of legionellosis

A. Person-to-Person transmission is common
B. Farm animals are important animal reseroirs
C. Patients can present with a self-limited nonpneumonic febrile illness
D. Specimens may be cold enriched to enhance recovery of the organism

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Klebsiella (Calymmatobacterium) granulomatis?

A. Is often sexually transmitted
B. Is isolated on chocolate agar
C. Is the causative agent of granuloma inguinale
D. Can be diagnosed by detection of Donovan bodies in clinical specimens

A positive DNase would be seen with

A. Escherichia coli
B. Kelbsiella oxytoca
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Serratia marcescens

A negative citrate reaction is characteristic of

A. Citrobacter freundii
B. Enterobacter aerogenes
C. Serratia marcescens
D. Shigella boydii

Isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A. Is enhanced by cold enrichment
B. Requires incubation under increased CO2
C. From contaminated sited is made easier by the use of CIN agar
D. Is not affected if clinical specimen is refrigerated before culturing

A positive indole reaction is characteristic of

A. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Salmonella Choleraesuis
D. Serratia marcescens

Which one of the following organisms would produce a yellow slant and a yellow butt on TSI agar after incubating 18 hours?

A. Escherichia coli
B. Proteus mirabilis
C. Salmonella Typhimurium
D. Shigella sonnei

Pyocyanin is characteristically produced by

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Pseudomonas fluorescens
C. Shewanella putrefaciens
D. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

Which of the following is true concerning Campylobacter jejuni?

A. Catalase negative
B. Isolated best at 24C
C. Hydrogen sulfide positive
D. A leading cause of bacterial diarrhea worldwide

Of the following microorganisms, which one will turn a dark purple when tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine hydrochloride is applied?

A. Acinetobacter baumannii
B. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
C. Moraxella catarrhalis
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

Cardiobaterium hominis, an inhabitant of the upper respiratory tract of humans, has been recovered as the etiologic agent from cases of endocarditis. An identifying characteristic of the organism is

A. Positive oxidase
B. Positive catalase
C. Indole negative
D. Inability to grow on sheep blood agar

Vibrio vulnificus is a well-established human pathogen that is known to cause

A. Gastroenteritis
B. Pneumonia
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Wound infections

Which of the following organisms produce a positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction?

A. Citrobacter freundii
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Providendia stuartii
D. Yersinia enterocoloitica

Which of the following non-lactose-fermenting organisms does not produce fluorescein?

A. Pseudomonas alcaligenes
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Pseudomonas fluorescens
D. Pseudomonas putida

Which of the following organisms is unable to grow on MacConkey agar?

A. Bordetella bronchiseptica
B. Burkholderia cepacia
C. Kingella deitrificans
D. Plesiomonas shigelloides

Which of the following is not true of Haemophilus spp.?

A. Obligate parasites
B. Grow well on sheep blood agar
C. Small,pleomorphic, gram-negative coccobacilli
D. Many are found as normal flora in the human respiratory tract

Legionella pneumophila

A. Infections are most often acquired from environmental sources
B. Metabolizes a number of carbohydrates
C. Stains easily on the routine Gram stain
D. Does not autofluoresce

Which of the following is he optimal clinical specimen for the recovery of Legionella pneumophila?

A. Stool
B. Blood
C. Bronchial washings
D. Nasopharyngeal swab

Which of the following is not an appropriate medium for primary isolation of Bordetella pertussis?

A. Regan-Lowe
B. Bordet-Gengou
C. Modified Skirrow's medium
D. Buffered charcoal yeast extract

Production of a yellow pigment is characteristic of which of the following Enterobacter sp.?

A. E. aerogenes
B. E. cloacae
C. E. sakazakii
D. E. taylorae

A gram-negative bacillus was recovered from the urine of a child with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The organism was oxidase negative, lactose negative, urease positive, and motile. The most likely identification of this agent would be

A. Escherichia coli
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Pseudomononas aeruginosa

Acinetobacter baumannii is characteristically

A. Motile
B. Oxidase positive
C. Sensitive to penicillin
D. Able to grow on MacConkey agar

Which of the following is not characteristic of Eikenella corrodens?

A. It is a thin, gram-negative bacillus.
B. Colonies sometimes pit the surface of the agar medium.
C. It is found in the mouth and upper respiratory tract of humans.
D. It is often found in pure culture when recovered from infections.

Which of the following species of Pasteurella is associated with human infections following cat bites?

A. P. avium
B. P. canis
C. P. multocida
D. P. stomatis

Which of the following Legionella spp. is positive for hippurate hydrolysis?

A. L. micadadei
B. L. longbeachae
C. L. gormanii
D. L. pneumophila

Which of the following is not characteristic of Haemophilus influenzae biogroup aegyptius?

A. Indole negative
B. Requires V factor
C. Requires X factor
D. Aminolevulinic acid positive

Kingella dentifificans can be differentiated from Neisseria gonorrhoeae because it is

A. Able to grow on Thayer-Martin agar
B. Able to reduce nitrates
C. Oxidase positive
D. Glucose positive

Plesiomonas was recently moved to which family?

A. Brucelleaceae
B. Enterobacteriaceae
C. Legionellaceae
D. Vibrionaceae

In the past, povidone iodine, tincture of iodine prep pads and swabs, and other disinfectants have been recalled because of mibrobial contamination. The most likely organism to be isolated in these cases is

A. Bordetella bronchiseptica
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Serratia marcescens

Foodborne outbreaks of brucellosis are most commonly associated with eating

A. Raw shellfish
B. Imported cheese
C. Contaminated potato salad
D. Improperly cooked hamburger

Serratia spp. are unique in the family Enterobacteriaceae because of their ability to produce extracellular hydrolytic enzymes. Which of the following is not produced by Serratia species?

A. DNase
B. Gelatinase
C. Lipase
D. NADase

Haemophilus ducreyi is the causative agent of

A. Chancroid
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum
C. Trachoma
D. Whooping cough

The optimal specimen for the recovery of Bordetella pertussis is

A. Anterior nares swab
B. Blood
C. Expectorated sputum
D. Nasopharyngeal swab

Which of the following is the most common indicator of bacterial vaginosis?

A. Eikenella
B. Capnocytophaga
C. Gardnerella
D. Listeria

Blood cultures are recommended for the recovery of which of the following microorganisms?

A. Acinetobacter baumannii
B. Brucella canis
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is known to manifest commonly as which of the following clinical conditions?

A. Epiglottitis
B. Hepatitis
C. Mesenteric lymphadentis
D. Pseudomembranous colitis

Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin (CIN) agar is recommended for the recovery of

A. Brucella suis
B. Cardiobacerium hominis
C. Rhodococcus equi
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

Why are cultures for Gardnerella vaginalis not recommended?

A. The bacteria grow so slowly that results take too long to be relevant.
B. Isolation of the bacteria may not be clinically significant.
C. It is unsafe to grow this bacterium.
D. Artificial media are not available.

Buffered charcoal yeast extract is the recommended medium for the recovery of

A. Hafnia alvei
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Neisseria meningitdis
D. Vibrio cholerae

Swimmer's ear, a form of external otitis is commonly caused by

A. Acinetobacter baumannii
B. Bordetella bronchiseptica
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A number of vacationers who have traveled outside the U.S. have had their vacations interrupted by a case of "traveler's diarrhea," which is commonly associated with which etiologic agent?

A. Aeromonas hydrophila
B. Escherichia coli
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Vibrio parahemolyticus

On Gram stain, a morphology that resembles "seagull wings" is most characteristic of

A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Plesiomonas shigelloides
D. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

The flattened adjacent sides of the cellular appearance of which microorganism are said to resemble kidney beans?

A. Aeromonas hydrophila
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Pasteurella multocida

Which of the following is not urease positive?

A. Salmonella
B. Helicobacter pylori
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

Which of the Neisseria spp. produces acid from glucose but not from maltose, lactose, or sucrose?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria lactamica
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Neisseria sicca

B. Which of the Neisseria spp. produces acid from glucose but not sucrose or lactose?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. Neisseria lactamica
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Neisseria sicca

The causative agent of the septicemic, hemolytic disease known as Oroya fever is

A. Bartonella bacilliformis
B. Burkholderia mallei
C. Haemophilus aegyptius
D. Yersinia pestis

A positive gelatin reaction is characteristic of

A. Morganella morganii
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Salmonella Typhimurium
D. Serratia liquefaciens

A positive phenylalanine deaminase reaction is characteristic of

A. Hafnia alvei
B. Moraxella catarrhalis
C. Proteus vulgaris
D. Salmonella Enteritidis

Lack of motility is characteristic of

A. Enterobacter
B. Klebsiella
C. Salmonella
D. Serratia

Violet-colored colonies are typically produced by

A. Chromobacterium violaceum
B. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Serratia marcescens

Which of the following is not true about Pasteurella multocida?

A. Most common human infections occur in soft tissues, bones and joints.
B. Humans harbor the organism as part of their normal flora.
C. It is the most virulent of the species in the genus.
D. It grows on sheep blood agar.

Pus was aspirated from an empyema. A Gram stain of the aspirated material showed many white blood cells and numerous gram-negative bacilli. The culture grew many colonies producing a soluble green pigment. The most likely etiologic agent in this case would be

A. Chromobacterium violaceum
B. Legionella pneumophila
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Serratia marcescens

Some strains of Serratia marcescens produce a red-colored pigment. Pigment production is enhanced by

A. Incubation at 22C
B. Incubation at 42C
C. Growth on sheep blood agar
D. Growth on typtic soy agar without blood

Which of the following is not a correct description regarding Aeromonas hydrophila?

A. Beta-hemolytic
B. Catalase positive
C. ONPG negative
D. Oxidase positive

Edwardsiella tarda is occasionally isolated in stool specimens and can biochemically be confused with

A. Salmonella
B. Enterohemorraghic E. coli
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

The porphyrin test determines an organism's requirement for

A. Cystiene
B. Hemin
C. NAD
D. Thiol

Which of the following is an occasional cause of respiratory tract infections and is rapidly urea positive?

A. Bordetella bronchiseptica
B. Brucella abortus
C. Campylobacter fetus
D. Escherichia coli

One of the most common etiologic agents of community-acquired uncomplicated cases of cystitis is

A. Enterobacter aerogenes
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Proteus vulgaris

The characteristic growth pattern known as "satelliting" is associated with

A. Burkholderia pseudomallei
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Yersinia pestis

Colonies that are said to resemble "droplets of mercury" are characteristic of

A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Burkholderia cepacia
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Yersinia pestis

When an epidemiologic survey for the detection of upper respiratory tract carriers of Neisseria meningitidis or Bordetella pertussis is being conducted, the optimal type of specimen to be obtained for culture is

A. Anterior nares
B. Buccal cavity
C. Nasopharyngeal
D. Throat

Chronic carriers, persons who remain infected with an organism for long periods, are typically associated with the dissemination of

A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Salmonella Typhi
D. Yersinia pestis

Milk has classically been the primary food associated with the transmission of some diseases, especially for those diseases of cattle transmissible to humans, such as

A. Brucellosis
B. Glanders
C. Meliodosis
D. Pontiac fever

Association with faucet aerators and humidifiers used with ventilators in intensive care units is commonly a factor in outbreaks of infections with which of the following microorganisms?

A. Klebsiella neumoniae
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Salmonella spp.
D. Serratia marcescens

Which of the following is not appropriate for the cultivation of Neisseria gonorrheae?

A. Chocolate agar
B. Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin agar
C. Martin-Lewis agar
D. Modified Thayer-Martin agar

The selective nature of Hektoen enteric agar is due to the inclusion of which of the following?

A. Bile salts
B. Bis-sodium metasulfate
C. Bromthymol blue
D. NaCl

For the selective isolation of Vibrio spp. the recommended agar is

A. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose agar
B. Charcoal yeast extract agar
C. Mannitol salt agar
D. Tinsdale agar

When performing an oxidase test, which of the following would not be appropriate?

A. The reagent used is 0-nitrophenyl-B-D-galactopyranoside
B. A nichrome wire loop should be used to acquire inoculum for testing
C. Colonies used from sheep blood agar can be used
D. A positive colony turns dark purple within 10 seconds after application of the reagent

The porphyrin test is most useful for the identification of which of the following?

A. Campylobacter
B. Haemophilus
C. Moraxella
D. Neisseria

Which of the following is not true about the laboratory diagnosis of pertussis?

A. Regan-Lowe medium is the recommended medium.
B. DFA test results are definitive and do not need to be confirmed by culture.
C. Calcium alginate or Dacron swabs are recommended over cotton-tipped swabs for specimen collection.
D. Material collected from the nasopharynx is optimal for detection of the causative agent.

Reptiles kept as pets are sometimes associated with the transmission of

A. Campylobacter
B. Helicobacter
C. Salmonella
D. Vibrio

A young man developed keratitis associated with the use of contact lenses that had been immersed in a contaminated cleaning solution. The most common bacterial etiologic agent in such cases is

A. Chryseobacterium meningosepticum
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Escherichia coli

The organism that is linked to peptic ulcers and is the most frequent cause of gastritis is

A. Campylobacter jujuni
B. Heliobacter pylori
C. Salmonella Typhimurium
D. Yersinia enterocolitica

New York City agar was developed for the isolation of

A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Campylobacter fetus
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Besides the Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which of the following is an important cause of lower respiratory tract infections in patients with cystic fibrosis?

A. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B. Burkholdia cepacia
C. Chryseobacterium meningeosepticum
D. Serratia marcescens

Eikenella corrodens is an opportunistic pathogen, but it is most noted for causing

A. Abscesses of the oral cavity
B. Pneumonia
C. Postsurgical wound infections
D. Urinary tract infections