BIOLOGY 2117/ Unit IV Study Guide Multiple Choice / True and False

All of the following are associated with type IV hypersensitivity reactions except
A. an induration.
B. accumulation of T lymphocytes at the antigen site.
C. production of IgE.
D. infection allergy.

AIDS stands for
A. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
B. acquired immunodeficiency symptom.
C. acquisitioned immunosuppressing syndrome.
D. autoimmune deficiency syndrome.

A person who harbors a pathogen and is a source of infection to the next person is best referred to as a(n)

A. acute source.
B. chronic source.
C. subclinical source.
D. carrier.

An epidemic disease is one that

A. breaks out in higher than usual proportions in a population.
B. remains dormant in populations.
C. follows a primary infection.
D. is transmitted solely by arthropods.

What specific job is this person fulfilling? She isolates the cause of an outbreak, prevents its spread, and gets out public health messages to people who could have been exposed.

A. Microbiologist
B. Biologist
C. Epidemiologist
D. Public health inspector

Indigenous microbiota may be found in all of the following environments except

A. the blood.
B. the pharynx.
C. the vagina.
D. the upper respiratory tract.

Which one of the following does not contribute to the virulence of a bacterial species?

A. Its ability to produce exotoxins.
B. Its ability to overcome body defenses.
C. Its ability to spread through the tissues.
D. Its ability to grow on artificial laboratory media.

Certain microorganisms inhabit parts of the body without causing symptoms of disease. These organisms collectively are referred to as

A. indigenous microbiota.
B. parasites.
C. avirulent pathogens
D. opportunists.

The degree to which an organism is able to cause disease is referred to as its
A. chronicity.

B. pathogenicity.
C. acuteness.
D. communicability.

The relationship between the human body and its microbiota

A. usually leads to parasitism.
B. is never beneficial to either.
C. is established before birth.
D. is an example of a symbiosis.

Which of the following is an example of indigenous microbiota?

A. Escherichia coli in the intestines
B. Candida albicans in the intestines
C. Lactobacillus in the human vagina
D. All of the above are correct

Pathogenicity islands refer to

A. pathogens in biofilm aggregations.
B. clusters of genes responsible for virulence.
C. areas of the body prone to infection.
D. areas within a reservoir where pathogens can be found.

Opportunistic organisms are those that

A. usually cause disease in a previously healthy person when they enter through the correct portal of entry.
B. inhabit the intestine but are incapable of causing disease.
C. are usually commensals but can cause disease when body defenses are suppressed.
D. require a vector.

The organisms that infect individuals with AIDS

A. are all known to be serious pathogens.
B. have a high degree of virulence.
C. produce exotoxins as well as endotoxins.
D. are examples of opportunistic organisms.

A disease that develops rapidly, shows substantial signs and symptoms, comes to a climax, and then fades, is a(n)

A. acute disease.
B. prodromal disease.
C. systemic disease.
D. chronic disease

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a soil organism. Every time we eat a fresh salad, we consume millions of these organisms. They usually do us no harm. However, these same organisms can cause serious infection in persons who have been severely burned. Such a pathogen is called

A. communicable.
B. commensalistic.
C. opportunistic.
D. systemic.

Pneumocystis pneumonia in an AIDS patient would be considered a

A. communicable disease.
B. genetic disease.
C. primary infection.
D. secondary infection.

Such factors as the number of organisms, their generation time and virulence, and the level of host resistance can influence

A. hemolysin and leukocidin production.
B. the incubation period for a disease.
C. whether or not an organism produces exotoxins.
D. how the body is entered

Chronic diseases are those that

A. develop rapidly and come to a climax.
B. linger for long periods of time.
C. occur in epidemic proportions.
D. are subclinical.

Which one of the following does not apply to endotoxins?

A. They are composed exclusively of protein.
B. They are part of the bacterial cell wall.
C. They are present in gram-negative bacteria.
D. They do not stimulate an immune response that leads to the production of antibodies.

Hyaluronidase is a bacterial enzyme that

A. induces blood clot formation in the host.
B. encourages movement in the organism.
C. enhances penetration of a pathogen through the host tissues.
D. destroys blood clots in the host.
D. destroys blood clots in the host.

Leukocidin is a bacterial enzyme that can

A. enhance tissue penetration.
B. destroy white blood cells.
C. destroy blood clots.
D. clot blood.

A scientist who studies the patterns of disease in a community and attempts to locate its source is called a(n)

A. pathologist.
B. epidemiologist.
C. microbiologist.
D. infectiologist.

The ability of the body to restrict the spread of a bacterial infection might be overcome if

A. exotoxins are produced by the organism.
B. the portal of entry of infectious organisms is incorrect.
C. the organism produces streptokinase.
D. hemolysin is liberated in the environment.

Endotoxin shock may follow

A. removal of the acetylcholine from the synapse.
B. interruption of the metabolism of gram-positive bacteria.
C. injection of antitoxins to the body.
D. antibiotic treatment of a disease due to gram-negative bacteria.

The period of a disease during which the symptoms subside is often referred to as the

A. period of decline.
B. period of convalescence.
C. prodromal phase.
D. incubation period.

Tetanus will not occur in the tissue of the small intestine because

A. the organisms will grow, but do not produce toxins in this area.
B. the body's white blood cells are particularly active.
C. lymph does not flow through the intestine.
D. the portal of entry for tetanus spores is parenteral.

Adhesins may be associated with all of the following bacterial structures except

A. pili.
B. flagella.
C. capsules.
D. cilia.

Invasiveness refers to the ability of a parasite to

A. enter through a variety of portals of entry.
B. add to its virulence by transduction.
C. penetrate tissues and spread.
D. convert toxins to toxoids.

The organisms that cause botulism and tetanus both cause disease by the production of

A. spores.
B. antitoxins.
C. neurotoxins.
D. anaerobic growth.

When the body has been exposed to exotoxins

A. it will respond with toxoids.
B. it will develop endotoxin shock.
C. it will produce antitoxins.
D. it will start to form clots.

A microbial poison produced during the metabolism of a bacterium and released into the environment is a(n)

A. antitoxin.
B. exotoxin.
C. endotoxin.
D. toxoid.

If a pathogen is part of a biofilm, its virulence is enhanced because

A. it can produce more toxins.
B. it is protected from phagocytes and drugs.
C. its infectious dose is decreased.
D. it is more invasive.

Endotoxins are produced by

A. fungi.
B. gram-positive bacteria.
C. gram-negative bacteria.
D. viruses.

Changes in the permeability of the blood vessels often accompany diseases caused by gram-negative bacteria. This permits leakage of blood fluid to the intercellular spaces, and the patient may lapse into a coma. This condition is referred to as _______ shock.

A. endotoxin
B. exotoxin
C. toxoid
D. antitoxin

All of the following are characteristics of endotoxins except

A. usual source is gram-negative bacteria.
B. a product of the LPS complex.
C. cannot be converted to toxoid.
D. can elicit antibody production.

The enzyme produced by virulent staphylococci that catalyzes the formation of a blood clot which protects against phagocytosis is

A. streptokinase.
B. coagulase.
C. hyaluronidase.
D. hemolysin.

An abnormally high number of measles cases in one American city would be classified as a(an)

A. epidemic.
B. pandemic.
C. endemic.
D. outbreak.

Which one of the following is not a method of direct contact transmission of disease?

A. Touching an animal
B. Inhalation of articles of mucus expelled from the respiratory tract
C. Handshaking
D. Fomites

Which of the following is an example of vehicle transmission of disease?

A. Gonorrhea acquired through sexual intercourse with an infected person
B. A cold acquired through inhalation of respiratory droplets
C. Salmonellosis acquired through ingestion of contaminated food
D. Malaria acquired through the bite of a mosquito

With the development of modern vaccines we have brought which of the following diseases to the point where we can now say it has been eradicated?

A. Smallpox
B. Polio
C. Diphtheria
D. Pertussis

How does an individual gain naturally acquired active immunity?

A. Get the disease and recover from it.
B. Be exposed to the disease, have a subclinical case.
C. Be born with a natural immunity to the disease.
D. Both A and B are correct, but not C.

A disease that is usually present at a low level in a certain geographic area is said to be

A. epidemic.
B. pandemic.
C. endemic.
D. ubiquitous.

An individual generally acquires natural active immunity after

A. an injection of IgG.
B. an infusion of T lymphocytes.
C. a blood transfusion.
D. suffering an illness.

A disease that is found in high numbers worldwide such as AIDS is said to be

A. epidemic.
B. pandemic.
C. endemic.
D. ubiquitous.

Active immunity develops after the

A. antigens enter the body and induce an immune response.
B. antiserum is injected into the body.
C. antibodies pass across the placenta to the fetus.
D. antibodies pass in the colostrum to the newborn.

Which of the following types of vaccines induce the strongest immune response, sometimes giving a lifelong immunity?

A. Conjugate vaccine
B. DNA vaccine
C. Attenuated vaccine
D. Recombinant subunit vaccine

The intentional injection of an attenuated virus into a person will lead to

A. naturally acquired active immunity.
B. artificially acquired active immunity.
C. naturally acquired passive immunity.
D. artificially acquired passive immunity.

Attenuated viral vaccines are more difficult to use in developing countries than inactivated viral vaccines because

A. they require more booster shots.
B. they require refrigeration to retain their effectiveness.
C. it is difficult finding enough sterile needles for them.
D. it is difficult finding enough medical personnel to administer the vaccines.

Which of the following is a drawback to the use of inactivated vaccines?

A. Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time.
B. They have to be kept refrigerated.
C. They have a short shelf life.
D. All of the above are correct.

Which of the following is a single-dose vaccine?

A. Sabin polio vaccine
B. Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine
C. Salk polio vaccine
D. All of the above are single-dose vaccines.

Adults should receive a booster shot of diphtheria (Td) vaccine every

A. 6 months.
B. year.
C. 5 years.
D. 10 years.

Subunit vaccines are those that use

A. parts of antibody molecules as antigens.
B. fragments of phagocytes in solution.
C. parts of microorganisms such as pili and capsular polysaccharides.
D. preparations of haptens.

Conjugate vaccines contain toxoids because

A. toxoids are much easier to store.
B. polysaccharide antigens by themselves produce a weak immune response.
C. they are only used for diseases caused by toxins.
D. the pathogen that they are designed to protect against has no other antigens.

Passive immunity can

A. involve gamma globulin.
B. be acquired by a child from its mother.
C. be administered with an antiserum.
D. All the above are correct.

A child receiving antibodies in the colostrum during nursing has acquired immunity that is
A. passive and active.
B. natural and artificial.
C. passive and natural.
D. artificial and passive

During the sensitization phase of immediate hypersensitivity,

A. complement is activated.
B. most cells and basophils degranulate.
C. smooth muscles contract.
D. IgE molecules attach to basophils

A neutralization reaction may be observed in the laboratory by

A. noting the agglutination of red blood cells.
B. injecting the antigen-antibody mixture to an animal.
C. watching for precipitate formation.
D. observing the fixing of complement.

IgE is the antibody involved in _______ hypersensitivity.

A. type I
B. cellular
C. immune complex
D. type II

The test to detect Rh antibodies is the

A. Coombs test.
B. Widal test.
C. Schick test.
D. VDRL test.

An allergen is an

A. antibody produced in anaphylactic hypersensitivity.
B. antigen that initiates an allergic reaction.
C. antigen that induces cell-mediated immunity.
D. antibody produced in response to autoantigen.

Which one of the following is a product made and released by mast cells sometime after degranulation?

A. Leukotrienes
B. Cyclic AMP
C. TNF alpha
D. Interleukin-4

Anaphylaxis would fail to occur without

A. release of mediators from mast cells and basophils.
B. formation of immune complexes.
C. fixation of complement on the walls of blood vessels.
D. accumulation of IgG in the affected tissues.

Which one of the following does not apply to basophils?

A. They are a type of white blood cell.
B. They are rich in granules that contain histamine.
C. They represent about 1% of the total white blood cell count.
D. They contain hemoglobin for oxygen transport.

A life-threatening situation in systemic anaphylaxis occurs when

A. gastrointestinal cramps take place.
B. hives appear on the skin.
C. bronchiole muscles contract.
D. the brain swells with fluid.

. What triggers mast cells to degranulate in an allergic reaction?

A. Complement binding to the cell membrane
B. Cross-linking of the IgE antibodies by allergen
C. Antihistamines used in the treatment of the symptoms
D. Ctokines produced by Th cells

Which of the following substances can trigger an asthma attack?

A. Pollen and mold spores
B. Dust mites and insect products
C. Cold temperatures
D. All of the above are correct.

One of the objects of desensitization procedures is to

A. stimulate the production of interferon.
B. destroy immune complexes that may have formed in the blood vessels.
C. decrease the level of IgE produced.
D. stimulate the production of antihistamines.

Which one of the following applies to a cytotoxic hypersensitivity?

A. IgG reacts with antigens on the surfaces of cells.
B. An induration develops at the site of contact with antigen.
C. IgE fixes itself to the basophil surface.
D. Poison ivy induces a series of itchy skin blisters.

Food allergies are a form of ______ hypersensitivity.

A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV

A child receiving antibodies in the colostrum during nursing has acquired immunity that is

A. passive and active.
B. natural and artificial.
C. passive and natural.
D. artificial and passive.

No antibodies are involved in _______ hypersensitivity.

A. type I
B. cytotoxic
C. immune complex
D. cellular

Which of the following events does not occur during systemic anaphylaxis?

A. Degranulation of basophils throughout the body
B. Contraction of smooth muscles in the body
C. Edema
D. Release of cytotoxins from T lymphocytes

Hemolytic disease of the newborn is primarily a result of

A. formation of immune complexes in the tissues.
B. antibodies from the mother attaching to antigens located on the baby's red blood cell surface.
C. decreased phagocytosis arising from thrombocytopenia.
D. reaction between toxins and antitoxins occurring in the blood vessels.

. The major preformed mediator in the granules of mast cells is

A. complement.
B. histamine.
C. leukotrienes.
D. IgE.

If a woman with blood type A-positive has a child by a man whose blood type is A-negative
A. the child will have type B blood.
B. hemolytic disease may occur in the second child to be conceived.
C. the child will not suffer from hemolytic disease nor will a future child.
D. the woman will develop Rh antibodies at the conclusion of pregnancy.

Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result when which of the following couples have children?

A. An Rh (+) man and an Rh (+) woman
B. An Rh (+) man and an Rh (-) woman
C. An Rh (-) man and an Rh (+) woman
D. An Rh (-) man and an Rh (-) woman

Which of the following factors contribute to the selection of antibiotic-resistant bacteria?

A. Using antibiotics when they are not needed
B. Failing to complete a course of treatment
C. Antibiotics given to livestock
D. All of the above are correct.

The Kirby-Bauer test is useful for determining

A. the minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotic.
B. whether side effects will result from use of an antibiotic.
C. which antibiotic may be employed to treat an infection.
D. the origin of an antibiotic.

Which of the following is not a type of chemotherapeutic agent used to treat viral infections?

A. Agents that inhibit reverse transcriptase
B. Agents that inhibit proteases
C. Agents that are base analogs
D. Agents that interfere with ergosterol

Chloroquine, primaquine, and quinine are of value for the treatment of

A. urinary tract infections.
B. cases of malaria.
C. infections caused by bacteria of the intestinal tract.
D. fungal diseases.

Flucytosine, clotrimazole, and ketoconazole are all

A. drugs for treating leprosy.
B. modern sulfonamide drugs.
C. antifungal agents.
D. cell wall inhibitors.

Nystatin is the recommended drug for

A. infections of the intestine due to gram-negative bacteria.
B. viral infections of the skin.
C. malaria and tuberculosis.
D. Candida albicans infections of the intestine or oral cavity.

Some bacteria produce beta-lactamases, which break down and inactivate

A. penicillins.
B. macrolides.
C. fluoroquinolones.
D. tetracyclines.

Penicillins interfere with the synthesis of

A. folic acid.
B. peptidoglycan.
C. DNA.
D. mRNA.

Pseudomembranous colitis is a condition of the intestine that may be related to

A. the anaphylaxis associated with penicillin.
B. aplastic anemia.
C. overuse of lincomycin and clindamycin.
D. cell-wall inhibition caused by vancomycin.

The spectrum of activity of tetracycline antibiotics

A. includes the viruses.
B. is limited to the fungi.
C. includes viruses, protists, and fungi.
D. includes Rickettsia and Chlamydia.

All aminoglycoside antibiotics function by

A. interfering with cell wall synthesis.
B. attaching to bacterial ribosomes and causing a misreading of the genetic code.
C. blocking absorption at the cell membrane.
D. blocking DNA transcription.

A common feature of bacitracin and polymyxin B is that both antibiotics

A. are effective against fungi.
B. contain four benzene rings and several carbohydrate side-groups.
C. are only used topically.
D. lead to anaphylaxis reactions.

Members of the genus Streptomyces

A. produce sulfanilamide.
B. are commonly found in the urinary tract.
C. produce many well-known antibiotics.
D. are used to test the MIC of an antibiotic.

Cephalosporins act by

A. inhibiting protein synthesis.
B. interfering with cell-wall synthesis.
C. competitively inhibiting folic acid biosynthesis.
D. inhibiting RNA synthesis.

Both the cephalosporin and penicillin antibiotics

A. are produced by mold-like bacteria.
B. are used primarily for gram-negative bacteria.
C. act on the cell wall of bacteria.
D. are related to sulfanilamide.

Antibiotics represent compounds not directly used for growth and reproduction called

A. biofilms.
B. gram-negative bacteria.
C. secondary metabolites.
D. All of the above are correct.

All the following apply to the tetracycline antibiotics except
A. they are associated with discoloration of the teeth.
B. they are used for rickettsial and chlamydial diseases.
C. they are broad-spectrum antibiotics.
D. they may cause the gray syndrome.

Chloramphenicol is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that

A. inhibits RNA synthesis.
B. cannot be absorbed from the intestine.
C. interferes with peptide bond formation in microorganisms.
D. is effective only against gram-negative infections.

The tubercle bacillus is usually susceptible to

A. erythromycin but not streptomycin.
B. rifampin but not penicillin.
C. penicillin but not nystatin.
D. cephalothin but not isoniazid.

The beta-lactam nucleus is the basic structure of

A. penicillin.
B. tetracycline.
C. chloramphenicol.
D. aminoglycosides.

Sulfanilamide is highly active against those bacteria that

A. form granular lesions in the body.
B. are gram-positive.
C. induce allergic reaction.
D. are commonly found in polluted water.

A person who is allergic to penicillin allergy may be treated with

A. bacitracin but not cephalosporin.
B. erythromycin but not ampicillin.
C. amoxicillin but not erythromycin.
D. ampicillin but not amoxicillin.

Ideally, an antimicrobial agent should exhibit selective toxicity, meaning that it should

A. harm the infectious agent but not the host.
B. have very low toxic dose.
C. have a very high therapeutic dose.
D. be toxic to a wide variety of infectious agents.

The two major drawbacks to the use of natural penicillins are

A. kidney damage and immune complex formation.
B. allergic reactions and development of drug-resistant bacteria.
C. aplastic anemia and anaphylactic hypersensitivity.
D. loss of hearing and cytotoxic hypersensitivity.

Which group of antibiotics block DNA synthesis in bacteria?

A. Quinolones
B. Penicillins
C. Aminoglycosides
D. Tetracyclines

A broad-spectrum antibiotic would be expected to be effective against
A. gram-positive bacteria only.
B. gram-negative bacteria only.
C. many taxonomic groups.
D. both bacteria and viruses.

Which of the following is the best definition of an antibiotic?

A. A chemical that is made in the pharmaceutical laboratory that kills or inhibits other microorganisms
B. A product produced by living microorganisms that kills or inhibits other microorganisms
C. Any chemotherapeutic agent that harms an infectious organism
D. The concentration of the drug that destroys the pathogen

Isoniazid inhibits the production of

A. peptidoglycan.
B. folic acid.
C. mycolic acid.
D. viral RNA.

Isoniazid is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic that is useful for treatment of

A. viral infections.
B. pneumonia.
C. tuberculosis.
D. strep throat.

Sulfonamide is a competitive inhibitor that interferes with the ability of a bacterium to

A. resist the effect of tetracycline.
B. synthesize PABA.
C. undergo transformation to a resistant form.
D. produce folic acid.

Alexander Fleming is credited with the discovery of which of the following antimicrobial agents?

A. Quinine
B. Penicillin
C. Cephalosporin
D. Erythromycin

Which enzyme uses the viral RNA as a template to synthesize a strand of DNA and then uses the DNA strand as a template to complete a DNA double helix?

A. DNA ligase
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. RNA polymerase
D. DNA polymerase

Diagnosis of HIV infection often relies on the detection of HIV_______ in the blood.

A. particles
B. antibodies
C. proteins
D. reverse transcriptase

HIV can be transmitted by "risky behaviors" such as

A. unprotected sexual contact with an HIV-infected person.
B. sharing contaminated needles with an HIV-infected person.
C. oral sex with an HIV-infected person.
D. All of the above are correct.

CD4 T cell counts of ________ or less defines an HIV-infected individual as having AIDS.

A. 200
B. 500
C. 1,000
D. 10,000

________________ is/are the hallmark of HIV infection.

A. Opportunistic infections
B. T cell proliferation
C. Immune stimulation
D. None of the above is correct.

Stage _________ is the asymptomatic stage of HIV infection.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Within 72 hours of infection of a host cell, the reverse transcribed HIV DNA molecule has integrated into one of the host chromosomes as a

A. plasmid.
B. plastid.
C. prion.
D. provirus

___________ causes AIDS.

A. Influenza virus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. HIV
D. Norovirus

DiGeorge syndrome and X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia are both

A. characterized by cytotoxic reactions.
B. primary immunodeficiency disorders.
C. autoimmune diseases.
D. types of atopic reactions.

. Which type of graft rejection is due to preformed antibodies?

A. Acute
B. Hyperacute
C. Chronic
D. None of the above, since all transplant rejection is mediated by T cells.

Transplanted tissue is rejected by the body if the

A. grafted tissue is an autograft.
B. blood types of donor and recipient are the same.
C. immune system interprets the tissue to be "nonself."
D. donor and recipient of the transplant are identical twins.

Which molecules are the major targets seen as foreign by the recipient's immune system in rejection of allografts?

A. HLAs
B. Histamines
C. T cell receptors
D. Antibodies

An isograft has less chance of rejection than a xenograft because

A. the isograft is not composed of living tissue.
B. new blood vessels need not be formed in the isograft.
C. the graft composition of the donor and recipient are identical in an isograft.
D. there are no antigens in an isograft.

All of the following are associated with type IV hypersensitivity reactions except

A. an induration.
B. accumulation of T lymphocytes at the antigen site.
C. production of IgE
D. infection allergy.

Repeated exposure to allergenic shampoos may lead to drying and scaling of the scalp. This is an example of

A. infection allergy.
B. contact dermatitis.
C. common allergy.
D. cytotoxic hypersensitivity.

Identification of the major histocompatibility complex proteins is helpful in determining

A. the nature of autotoxins produced by the immune system.
B. the extent of a person's allergy.
C. the expected acceptance or rejection of transplanted tissue.
D. whether a woman is Rh-positive or Rh-negative.

An important effect of hemolysin is

A. destruction of phagocytes in the
blood.
B. endotoxin shock.
C. lyse red blood cells, giving pathogens access to iron .
D. lysis of neutrophils and lymphocytes.

Which of the following would be the reservoir of infection for a zoonosis?

A. Water
B. Soil
C. Human
D. Animal

Nosocomial infections account for an estimated 1.7 million infections and 99,000 deaths each year in the United States. Which of the following is not a common cause?

A. Inefficient air handling mechanisms
B. A high prevalence of pathogens in a hospital
C. A high number of immunocompromised patients
D. Efficient chains of transmission from patient to patient

In the prodromal phase of a disease, signs and symptoms

A. are at their most severe.
B. may be general and include muscle aches and headache.
C. have begun to disappear.
D. have not developed yet and there is no sign of disease.

Serum sickness may accompany the development in the body of

A. cell-mediated immunity.
B. the complement cascade.
C. artificial passive immunity.
D. natural active immunity.

When the immune system recognizes a foreign protein in a serum injection, a series of chemical molecules called ______ may form.

A. gamma globulins
B. antiserum
C. conjugate DNA
D. immune complexes

Herd immunity is affected by all the following factors except

A. the environment.
B. antibiotic use.
C. immune system strength.
D. the number of vaccinated people in the population.

A seropositive serological test indicates that,

A. an allergic reaction has occurred.
B. antibodies to the pathogen were detected.
C. the individual hast he disease.
D. antihuman antibodies were detected.

The antigenic substance that sets off allergic reaction

A. interacts with the body's T lymphocytes.
B. is known as an allergen.
C. induces smooth muscle contraction directly.
D. contains cyclic AMP molecules.

A series of events in which mediators cause the body's smooth muscles to contract, resulting in anaphylactic shock, is called

A. urticaria.
B. localized anaphylaxis.
C. systemic anaphylaxis.
D. infection allergy.

Which one of the following is not involved in systemic lupus erythematosus?

A. Immune complex formation
B. A butterfly rash
C. Lesions on the heart, kidneys, and blood vessels
D. Mediators such as histamine

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that is an example of a(n)_______ hypersensitivity.
A. anaphylactic
B. cytotoxic
C. immune complex
D. cellular

T lymphocytes are the mediators of ______ hypersensitivity.

A. anaphylactic
B. cytotoxic
C. immune complex
D. delayed

In a systemic anaphylactic reaction, constriction of the small veins and expansion of the capillary pores forces fluids out into the tissues causing

A. a rash consisting of both wheals and flares.
B. wheezing and stressed breathing.
C. a drop in blood pressure and anaphylactic shock.
D. IgG to form complexes with antigens near the site of the latter's entry into the body.

Systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that is an
example of a(n)_______ hypersensitivity.

A. anaphylactic
B. cytotoxic
C. immune complex
D. cellular

Stage III is also known as the late or _________ stage of HIV infection.

A. latent
B. AIDS
C. progressive
D. prodromal

A semisynthetic antibiotic is one that is

A. made in a pharmaceutical laboratory.
B. a chemically modified microbial antibiotic.
C. made from living organisms.
D. made from penicillin.