Which of the following substances or processes reduces pathogens on living tissue?
- Degermers
- Disinfectants
- Pasteurization
- Antiseptics
What is the best test for antimicrobial effectiveness?
- Phenol coefficient
- In-use test
- Use dilution test
- Kelsey-Sykes capacity test
Milk on a store shelf instead of in the refrigerator has likely undergone __________.
- ultra high temperature sterilization
- ultra high temperature pasteurization
- batch pasteurization
- flash pasteurization
Which of the following terms best describes the treatment of surgical instruments?
- Sterilization
- Pasteurization
- Antisepsis
- Sanitization
Ionizing radiation is useful for sterilizing __________________.
- syringes
- an operating table
- liquid
- air
Autoclaving kills cells because it damages which of the following?
- flagella
- The cell membrane
- The cell wall
- DNA
A sample of E. coli has been subjected to varying temperatures for 10-minute intervals until all cells have been destroyed. Which of the following terms best describes this event?
- Decimal reduction time
- Thermal death time
- None of the responses is correct.
- Thermal death point
Hydrogen peroxide is a good disinfectant for _________________.
- puncture wounds
- open wounds
- contact lenses
- contact lenses and puncture wounds
Beef jerky is preserved from microbial spoilage by __________________.
- lyophilization
- freezing
- high salt concentration
- refrigeration
Which of the following acts against prions?
- Enzymes
- Peracetic acid
- Silver nitrate
- Glutaraldehyde
You work at a brewery and want to make sure your final product is yeast free. What pore size should you use when you filter the beer?
- 3 µm
- 5 µm
- .01 µm
- .45 µm
The major benefit of lyophilization over freezing is ________________.
- lower temperature
- radiation
- prevention of ice crystal formation
- vacuum application
Since you are working with influenza virus in your new job, you will be in a ________ lab.
- BSL-1
- BSL-2
- BSL-3
- BSL-4
Which of the following substances is least toxic to humans?
- Carbolic acid
- Quats
- Glutaraldehyde
- Formalin
If you are looking at a graph of number of living microbes versus time, where would the thermal death time be indicated?
- Where the line intersects the y axis
- Where the line intersects the x axis
- Where the line is at its midpoint
- Where the line is at its highest point
Which of the following statements is not true when selecting an ideal antimicrobial agent?
- It is fast acting.
- It is nontoxic to humans.
- It is stable during storage.
- It is expensive.
Which microbial control method will destroy endospores?
- Autoclaving
- Incineration
- All choices are correct.
- Ethylene oxide gas
Which of the following procedures would be used to make apple cider safer to drink?
- Sterilization
- Degerming
- Pasteurization
- Disinfection
Which of the following items would likely be degermed?
- Skin
- Restaurant utensils
- Milk
- Surgical instruments
The antimicrobial agent approved in 2006 for the removal of prions from medical instruments belongs to which of the following groups?
- Halogens
- Oxidizing agents
- Antimicrobial enzymes
- Gaseous agents
Antimicrobial agents that disrupt the cell membrane will also damage __________.
- the viral envelope
- the cell wall
- cellular DNA
- cellular enzymes
All of the following microbial control methods are bacteriocidal except _________.
- ionizing radiation
- autoclaving
- lyophilization
- incineration
A surgical field is ________________.
- aseptic
- sterile
- disinfected
- sanitized
Which of the following microbial control procedures disrupts hydrogen bonding in DNA?
- Nonionizing radiation
- Ionizing radiation
- Autoclaving
- Heavy metals
All of the following antimicrobial agents function by disrupting cell membranes except __________.
- isopropanol
- mercury
- detergent
- phenol
Which of the following biosafety levels is characterized by the use of handwashing and disinfection of work surfaces?
- BSL-1
- BSL-2
- BSL-3
- BSL-4
Which of the following methods will destroy prions?
- Sanitization
- Antisepsis
- Pasteurization
- Incineration
Which of the following is not a factor affecting efficacy of an antimicrobial method?
- Environmental conditions such as temperature and pH
- The biosafety level of the lab to be cleaned
- Nature of site to be treated
- Relative susceptibility of microbes, killing the hardiest microbes first
Which of the following chemical microbial control agents would be best as an antiseptic?
- Autoclave
- Ethylene oxide
- Ultraviolet light
- Isopropanol
Pasteurization is an example of __________.
- autoclaving
- dry heat
- moist heat
- refrigeration
If a chemical is bacteriostatic, it means________.
- it can kill bacteria
- it can inhibit growth of viruses
- it can destroy all microbes
- it can inhibit bacterial growth, but it may not necessarily kill bacteria
Which of the following is a correct pairing?
- Chlorine dioxide: antimicrobial liquid
- Iodophor: alcohol solution of iodine
- Bromine: hot tub disinfectant
- Chloramine: disinfection of municipal water supplies
Which of the following would contribute to the decreased efficiency of an antimicrobial agent?
- Higher concentrations of the agent
- Presence of vomit
- Higher temperatures
- Longer exposure to cells
Which of the following is most susceptible to antimicrobial treatment?
- Enveloped viruses
- Prions
- Small nonenveloped viruses
- Protozoans cysts
Enveloped viruses
The smallest amount of an antimicrobial drug that will inhibit growth and reproduction of a microbe is expressed as the __________.
- therapeutic index
- narrow spectrum
- minimum inhibitory concentration
- minimum bactericidal concentration
Why is PABA an important drug target for metabolic pathway inhibition?
- It leads to nucleotide synthesis.
- It leads to phospholipid synthesis.
- It leads to monosaccharide synthesis.
- It leads to amino acid synthesis.
Echinocandins inhibit which of the following?
- Protein synthesis
- Nucleic acid synthesis
- Cell wall synthesis
- Metabolic pathways
Bacteria taken in a pill form to promote a healthy microflora are known as __________.
- antibiotics
- prebiotics
- bacteriocins
- probiotics
Targeting which of the following types of RNA could disrupt protein synthesis?
- tRNA
- mRNA
- All of the listed responses are correct.
- rRNA
Which bacterial genus is a source of common antibiotics?
- Staphylococci
- Streptococci
- Mycobacteria
- Streptomyces
Antibiotic resistance genes are often transferred between cells via __________.
- fimbriae
- plasmids
- chromosomes
- hami
Which of the following cellular structures or molecules is most similar in both bacteria and humans and therefore not a common drug target?
- DNA
- Cell wall
- Ribosomes
- Cytoplasmic membrane
Which of the following does not block the formation of folic acid in bacteria?
- Trimethoprim
- Dapsone
- Sulfanilamide
- Tetracycline
A(n) __________ is defined as an antimicrobial substance produced naturally by an organism.
- synergism
- synthetic
- antibiotic
- semisynthetic
Which of the following is a source antibiotics?
- Bacteria
- Synthetic chemicals
- Fungi
- Bacteria and fungi
Bacterial cells may acquire drug resistance by which of the following mechanisms?
- Altering the target of the drug
- All of the listed responses are correct.
- Altering the drug itself
- Efflux pumps
Polyenes target which of the following molecules?
- tRNA
- Peptidoglycan
- DNA gyrase
- Ergosterol
Reverse transcriptase inhibitors are important in the treatment of _________ infections.
- S. aureus
- HIV
- influenza
- M. tuberculosis
Which antimicrobial drug target has the most available drug choices?
- Antimetabolites
- Nucleotide analogs
- Protein synthesis
- Cell wall
Who discovered penicillin?
- Fleming
- Ehrlich
- Jenner
- Pasteur
Multiple-drug-resistant pathogens __________.
- All of the responses are correct.
- are resistant to three or more antimicrobial agents
- are resistant to all antimicrobial agents
- respond to new antimicrobials by developing resistance
Cross resistance is __________.
- resistance to one antimicrobial agent because of its similarity to another antimicrobial agent
- the deactivation of an antimicrobial agent by a bacterial enzyme
- alteration of the resistant cells so that an antimicrobial agent cannot attach
- the mutation of genes that affect the cytoplasmic membrane channels so that antimicrobial agents cannot cross into the cell’s interior
Quinolones target which of the following molecules?
- Peptidoglycan
- DNA gyrase
- Ergosterol
- tRNA
What was the first practical antimicrobial agent to be widely used?
- Penicillin
- Vancomycin
- Sulfanilamide
- Arsenic compounds
All of the following are mechanisms of action associated with drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis except __________.
- dismantling existing peptidoglycan molecules
- interfering with the formation of alanine-alanine crossbridges
- preventing crosslinking between NAM subunits
- blocking the secretion of NAG and NAM from the cytoplasm
The Therapeutic Index (TI) of an antimicrobial drug that has low toxicity to its human host would be __________.
- a high numerical value
- a negative value
- a low numerical value
- the same value as the smallest effective dose
The key to successful chemotherapy is __________.
- the minimum inhibitory concentration test
- the spectrum of action
- selective toxicity
- a diffusion test
Which of the following drugs is correctly paired with its mode of action?
- Quinolones: inhibit DNA gyrase
- Actinomycin: nucleotide analogs are incorporated into DNA
- AZT: blocks DNA replication
- Reverse transcriptase inhibitor: bind to DNA polymerase
In which of the following categories of antimicrobial drugs are the fewest drugs available?
- Antiprotozoan
- Antiviral
- Antifungal
- Antibacterial
If an antimicrobial inhibits prokaryotic protein synthesis, what is it selectively targeting?
- DNA
- 70S ribosomes
- Mitochondria
- 80S ribosomes
Which of the following is an example of an antimicrobial that blocks viral replication?
- Clofazimine
- Rifampin
- Pleconaril
- Polymyxin
Beta-lactamases contribute to antibiotic resistance by protecting _____________.
- the cell wall
- the cytoplasmic membrane
- DNA
- ribosomes
The prokaryotic ribosome is a good drug target because it is made of the ___________________ subunits.
- 40S and 60S
- 40S and 50S
- 30S and 50S
- 30S and 70S
The antiviral amantadine targets what step of influenza virus replication?
- Uncoating
- Assembly
- Nucleic acid synthesis
- Attachment
Mycobacteria contain a waxy lipid known as __________ in their cell walls.
- peptidoglycan
- teichoic acids
- porins
- mycolic acids
All of the following are mechanisms by which resistance genes can be spread through bacterial populations except __________.
- conjugation
- transamination
- transduction
- transformation
A mechanism of drug resistance where the cells actively remove the drug utilizes _________.
- biofilm formation
- an efflux pump
- MfpA
- Β-lactamase
A patient develops a severe rash and has problems breathing as a result of antibiotic therapy for a respiratory infection. Which of the following is the best explanation for why this occurred?
- The antibiotic has disrupted the normal microbiota.
- The patient is showing signs of drug toxicity.
- The microbe that caused the original infection has become resistant to the antibiotic.
- The patient is allergic to the antibiotic.
A drug that inhibits the growth of protozoan cells would not be expected to affect which of the following cell structures?
- Mitochondria
- Ribosomes
- The cytoplasmic membrane
- The cell wall
Why is chemotherapy against Mycobacterium species so problematic?
- They grow and reproduce very slowly.
- They have ribosomes that are different from those of other bacteria.
- There are no good drugs that can be used against Mycobacterium.
- They do not contain sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.
Which of the following does not contribute to antibiotic resistance?
- Lack of new drug development
- Taking the full prescribed course of treatment
- Taking an antibacterial drug when you have a viral infection
- Taking a short course of treatment
Scientist Paul Ehrlich was responsible for initiating which of the following subdisciplines of microbiology?
- Epidemiology
- Immunology
- Biochemistry
- Chemotherapy
Cephalosporins target __________.
- peptidoglycan
- mycolic acid
- teichoic acid
- lipopolysaccharide
An outbreak of food poisoning has occurred at a local restaurant. What factor(s) would public health agencies want to focus on?
- Limit transmission
- Locate infected individuals
- All of the listed responses are correct.
- Locate the source
Which of the following is mismatched?
- Direct contact: toys, cups, and toothbrushes
- Biological vector: mosquitoes, ticks, fleas
- Foodborne: poultry, potato salad, seafood
- Airborne: dust particles, droplets carried more than a meter
The capsule aids what step of infection?
- Invasiveness
- Entry
- Adhesion
- Exposure
Which of the following is a sign of infection?
- Sore throat
- Fatigue
- Fever
- Headache
The normal microbiota consist of __________.
- bacteria only
- viruses only
- fungi only
- protozoa only
- bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoans
The term __________ refers to a successful invasion by microbes in the body.
- sterilization
- contamination
- aseptic
- infection
A bag of salad mix contaminated with E. coli would be a(n) _________________.
- zoonoses
- carrier
- animal reservoir
- nonliving reservoir
Nosocomial infections can be contracted in which of the following settings?
- Hospital
- School
- Shopping mall
- Military base
Coughing is considered _______________ transmission.
- droplet
- direct contact
- indirect contact
- vector
Which of the following would be considered a communicable disease?
- Tetanus
- Acne
- Herpes
- Tooth decay
A person’s symptoms are most severe during the ______________ stage of disease.
- convalscence
- illness
- incubation
- decline
- prodromal
An infected papercut would be described as a _____________________.
- systemic infection
- latent disease
- chronic disease
- local infection
If a flea bit you and passed a pathogen, it would be a ________________.
- nonliving reservoir
- biological vector
- mechanical vector
- zoonoses
Chickenpox is considered a(n) __________.
- noncommunicable disease
- secondary infection
- chronic disease
- acute disease
A(n) __________ disease is caused by errors in the genetic code.
- endocrine
- hereditary
- congenital
- immunological
What type of microbes can handwashing not remove?
- Any of them
- Resident microbiota
- Transient microbiota
- Pathogens
What is the most common mucous membrane used as a portal of entry?
- Respiratory tract
- Urogenital tract
- GI tract
- Conjunctiva
A general feeling of tiredness is expected during the _____________ period of disease.
- incubation
- illness
- prodromal
- convalescence
- decline
Which of the following is not an example of an Exotoxin?
- Lipopolysacharride
- Enterotoxin
- Neurotoxin
- Cytotoxin
Which of the following is associated with direct contact transmission?
- Droplet nuclei
- Houseflies
- Kissing
- Fomites
The most common portal of entry is the _________________.
- placenta
- mucous membrane
- parenteral route
- skin
Which of the following is a symptom of disease?
- Swelling
- Rash
- Redness
- Itching
The growth of E. coli in the colon is an example of __________.
- parasitism
- mutualism
- commensalism
- antagonism
Koch’s postulates determine the _______________ of disease.
- immunology
- pathogenicity
- epidemiology
- etiology
A(n) __________ infection can have signs but no symptoms.
- chronic
- syndrome
- acute
- subclinical
The total number of cases of a disease in a given population during a given period of time is called __________.
- incidence
- prevalence
- virulence
- morbidity
Which of the following stages of an infectious disease has the greatest number of pathogens present in the body?
- Prodromal period
- Decline
- Illness
- Incubation period
Which of the following might be a source of a zoonosis?
- Animals
- Fomites
- Improperly cooked food
- Aerosols
Disease caused by a central line placement is best categorized as ____________.
- idiopathic
- healthcare associated
- iatrogenic
- infectious
Which of the following is not one of Koch's postulates?
- The same agent must be found in the diseased experimental host.
- The agent need not be cultured.
- The agent must be present in every case of the disease.
- The agent must cause disease in a healthy host.
The nature of bacterial capsules __________.
- causes widespread blood clotting
- increases adhesion capabilities
- has no effect on the virulence of bacteria
- affects the virulence of these bacteria
Which of the following are least likely to cause disease?
- Pathogens producing a neurotoxin
- Pathogens lacking the enzyme collagenase
- Pathogens producing an exotoxin
- Highly virulent organisms
Which of the following is an activity associated with public health agencies in their work to limit waterborne disease transmission?
- Screening of health care workers for latent infections
- Enforcement of standards in the preservation of foods
- Monitoring sewage treatment
- Proper inspection of meats
When pathogenic bacterial cells gain the ability to make adhesins, they typically __________.
- become virulent
- decrease in virulence
- absorb endotoxin
- produce endotoxin
A person determining the chain of transmission of a disease is a(n) _____________.
- descriptive epidemiologist
- experimental epidemiologist
- reservoir epidemiologist
- analytical epidemiologist
Consider the following case. An animal was infected with a bacterium. A mosquito bit the animal and was contaminated with the bacterium. The animal excreted feces into a stream, and a person became sick after drinking the water. Which was the vector/vehicle?
- Animal
- Person
- Mosquito
- Bacterium
- Water
Which of the following is not a virulence factor?
- Coagulase
- Streptokinase
- Antibody
- Neurotoxin
In which type of symbiosis is one member harmed and the other neither harmed nor benefits?
- Pathogenesis
- Amensalism
- Parasitism
- Commensalism
Which of the following is a zoonosis?
- AIDS
- Influenza
- Tuberculosis
- Rabies
Which of the following phrases describes a contagious disease?
- a disease arising from fomites
- a disease that is easily passed from host to host in aerosols
- a disease that is easily passed from host to host in aerosols and a disease arising from fomites
- a disease that arises from opportunistic, normal microbiota
____________ is a term for arthropods that transmit pathogens passively by carrying them on their body parts.
- Fomite
- Biological vector
- Mechanical vector
- Physical vector carrier
In which period of disease is an individual contagious?
- Illness
- Incubation
- Prodromal
- Convalescence
- Decline
- All of the listed responses are correct.
A patient contracted pneumonia after staying in the hospital after suffering a heart attack. Such infections are termed __________ infections.
- endogenous
- iatrogenic
- exogenous
- nosocomial
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