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Sterilization
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The process that completely destroys all microbial life, including spores.
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Disinfection
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The process of destroying pathogens from inanimate surfaces: countertops
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antisepsis
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Removing pathogens from living tissue (skin)
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sanitation
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reduction in microbial numbers considered safe by public health agencies. Usually applied to the food industry.
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cidal
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agent that kills a microbe
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static
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agent that inhibits growth but does not kill a microbe
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6 hallmarks of good antimicrobial agent
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low cost, low toxicity to humans, water solubility, ability to kill or inhibit a wide range of microbes, good penetrating power, rapid action
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most resistant to least resistant
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1. Prions
2. Endospores of bacteria
3. Mycobacteria
4. Cysts of protozoa
5. Active- stage protozoa
6. Gram-negative bacteria
7. Fungi
8. noneveloped virus
9. Gram-positive bacteria
10. enveloped viruses
2. Endospores of bacteria
3. Mycobacteria
4. Cysts of protozoa
5. Active- stage protozoa
6. Gram-negative bacteria
7. Fungi
8. noneveloped virus
9. Gram-positive bacteria
10. enveloped viruses
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d value
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amount of time required to kill 90% of microorganisms present
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thermal death point
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the lowest temperature required to kill all microbes in a set amount of time
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thermal death time
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determines the amount of time required to kill microbes at a set temperature
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Is E. coli or S. aureus less resistant to heat?
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e coli
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what is the nm for visible light
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400-700
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what is the wavelength for UV light?
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200-300
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what is most bactericidal?
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254 nm
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how is UV radiation bactericidal?
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It disrupts DNA replication by crosslinking Thymine
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disinfectants
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Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses on surfaces.
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antispetic
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applied to living tissue
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bleach
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denature protein; intermediate
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70% alcohol
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denature protein and disrupts cell membrane; intermediate
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lysol
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- disrupts cell membranes
- intermediate to low
- intermediate to low
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mouthwash
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disrupts cell membrane; low
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Selective toxicity
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the chemical being used should kill or inhibit the intended pathogen without causing harm to the host (human)
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What is the zone of inhibition?
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The area around the antibiotic disk in which bacteria cannot grow
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what is the name of the circle test?
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•Kirby-Bauer Disc Diffusion
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What does MIC stand for?
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minimum inhibitory concentration
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what is the MIC test?
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Minimum antibiotic concentration that inhibits all bacterial growth by using serial diluted antibiotic in a liquid state
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What is a disk diffusion test?
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you make a lawn of bacteria and add paper disks with chemicals
-the chemicals will diffuse into the medium
-the chemicals will diffuse into the medium
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contact transmission
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Transmission of an infectious agent by direct contact of the source or its reservoir with the host.
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index case
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the first patient found in an epidemiological investigation
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Which microorganism is teixobactin most effective?
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gram positive
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which microorganisms is teixobactin least effective?
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gram negative
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What is droplet transmission?
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This type occurs during exhaling, coughing, and sneezing.
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How is droplet transmission tested?
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•Destruction of the bacterial cells forms zones of clearing within the bacterial lawn.These zones of clearing are called plaques, and each plaque represents one viral particle. The number of plaques on
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mechanical disruption
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washing hands with water alone
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De-germing
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washing hands with SOAP (surfactant)
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why do we wash our hands in the hospital?
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Immunocompromised patients have increased susceptibility to opportunistic pathogens that may be present in a healthy individual's intestinal flora
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surfactant
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when added to a liquid, reduces its surface tension, thereby increasing its spreading and wetting properties (soap)
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why do we need to develop new antibiotics?
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antibiotic resistance
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From where are most clinical antibiotics derived?
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Most clinical antibiotics are "natural products".
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What is the major difficulty in screening soil microorganisms?
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we cannot grow most soil microorganism so there is no way to extract the compounds they produce, scientist design the ichip
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What is gram positive organism?
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strep
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what is a gram negative organism?
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E. coli
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What does teixobactin target?
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peptidoglycan
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what bacteria did we use during the toilet paper lab?
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•Bacillus subtilis var. globigii (non pathogenic/ bright orange colonies)
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When an organism's catalase test is positive, what does that mean the organism can do?
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The organism is capable of surviving in oxygen-rich environments! Catalase is produced to let the organism break down H202.
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Why are strict anaerobes unable to produce a positive result during this test?
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The strict anaerobes do not produce catalase, so when they are in oxygen rich environments they cannot survive
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what is specialized media?
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•It helps identify unknown species by taking advantage and testing differences in metabolic properties (selective and differential media)
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•What is differential media?
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the differences between bacterial species by including indicators
•Examples: Starch Hydrolysis Plates
•Examples: Starch Hydrolysis Plates
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obligate aerobe
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requires oxygen to survive
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obligate anaerobes
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organisms that cannot live where oxygen is present
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facultative
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can live with or without oxygen but grows better with
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aerotolerant
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do not utilize oxygen but can survive and grow in its presence
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Microaerophiles
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require oxygen concentration lower than air
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•In thioglycolate media, what does resazurin do?
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•Acts as an oxygen indicator by turning pink in the presence of oxygen and remaining colorless without.
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How does lysozyme break down bacteria?
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It breaks the NAG and NAM linkages within the cell wall, making the cell wall unstable
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How do we measure the amount of lysozymes in our body (tears/ saliva)?
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we use a bioassay to construct a standard curve
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•How does Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) media select bacteria?
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gram positive; destructs the outer membrane of gram negative
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how does macconkey media select bacteria?
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gram negative
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How does a GasPak work?
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hydrogen is released and combines with free O2 to make H2O and CO2 is secreted to create to perfect anaerobic enviornment
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what specialized media is BOTH selective and differential?
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Mannitol Salt Agar
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what does the gram stain help us determine?
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gram positive or negative
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what is TSA media?
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not selective or differential provides growth for both
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What is MSA?
answer
It only grows organisms that can tolerate high salt concentrations, making it selective. It differentiates between organisms that can and cannot ferment mannitol.
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what is Simmons citrate media?
answer
it is selective media and can only grow organisms that can use citrate as a carbon source
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what is starch hydrolysis media?
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differential; all organisms will grow but when iodine is added, you can see what organism have been digested by starch
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MSA which plates are salt tolerant?
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the ones that have growth of a pathogen
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What color is PEA
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white
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what color is MAC
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red- blood agar
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important note on MSA
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if it doesn't grow and stays pink you CANNOT determine if it ferments manitol
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selective test for MSA growth? or no growth?
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growth= tolerant of salt no growth= intolerant of salt
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differential test for MSA yellow? red?
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yellow= (+) mannitol fermentation red= (-) mannitol fermentation
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what type of media is citrate utilization
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selective media (streaking on slant)
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what does the summon citrate slant contain?
answer
sole carbon source
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citrate utilization test results
answer
(+) = growth, blue, citrate permease Ph >7.6
(-) = no growth, green, citrate permease Ph<6.9
(-) = no growth, green, citrate permease Ph<6.9
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how is starch broken down?
answer
the enzyme amylase
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what type of media is starch hydrolysis?
answer
differential
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starch hydrolysis results
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positive - clear halo
negative - no halo
negative - no halo
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what organisms produces urease? (clinical)
answer
helicobacter pylori
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Urease test results
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pink-positive pH > 7.4
yellow/orange- negative pH <6.8
yellow/orange- negative pH <6.8
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what type of test is a catalase test?
answer
differential test
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How does the catalase test work?
answer
Observe for bubbling, which indicates a positive reaction
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what does the enzyme catalase detoxifies H2O2?
answer
h2o (water) and O2 (oxygen)
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many aerobic or anaerobic produce catalase?
answer
aerobic
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Catalase test results
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positive: bubbles
negative: no bubbles
negative: no bubbles
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what step should NOT forget on a gram stain
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heat fix before staining
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what type of test is phenol red broth?
answer
differential media
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what is the tube that monitor gas production
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durham tube
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carbohydrate fermentation test
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three test tubes with a pill inside
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acid production for carb fermentation
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red color turns yellow if acidic (pH<6.8)
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gas production for carb fermentation
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durham tube (resulting air bubble)
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results for carb fermentation (yellow/pink)
answer
yellow= positive for fermentation of specific sugar
pink= negative for fermentation of specific sugar
pink= negative for fermentation of specific sugar
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Results for Carbohydrate Fermentation (gas)
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air bubble: positive for gas production
no air bubble: negative for gas production
no air bubble: negative for gas production
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what does the gas indicate in the durham tube?
answer
further fermentation
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What is the TSI test used for?
answer
test to see ferments glucose and/ or lactose and sucrose
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what happens if the TSI media turns black on the butt?
answer
thiosulfate ion as the terminal electron acceptor in anaerobic conditions
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what will always been on the top of TSI test?
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sucrose and lactose
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what will always been on the bottom of the TSI test?
answer
glucose
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TSI results :yellow butt/yellow slant, yellow butt/pink slant, pink butt/ pink slant
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yellow butt/ yellow slant: (+) for fermentation of all three sugars
yellow butt/ pink slant: (+) fermentation only glucose
pink butt/ pink slant: (-) fermentation of all 3 sugars
yellow butt/ pink slant: (+) fermentation only glucose
pink butt/ pink slant: (-) fermentation of all 3 sugars
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TSI results: bubbles/lifting/cracking
answer
cracks: (+) gas production
no cracks: (-) for gas production
no cracks: (-) for gas production
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TSI results of black
answer
black: (+) for H2S production
no black: (-) for H2S production
no black: (-) for H2S production
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what are the 2 main parts of the bacterial genome?
answer
bacterial chromosome and plasmid
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are plasmid essential?
answer
no
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when can bacteria uptake plasmid?
answer
when they are competent
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how are plasmids transmitted?
answer
horizontal gene transfer
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describe Chromosomal DNA
answer
circular, large, essential
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describe plasmid DNA
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circular, small, non essential
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what had to be done to ecoli before lab started?
answer
make e coli competent
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what actually causes the competent e coli to take up the DNA?
answer
heat shock
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what is the name of plasmid we are using?
answer
pGLO
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what regulates the bla gene?
answer
constitutive promoter that is always active
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what regulates the GFP protein?
answer
requires arabinose to be present
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•How do we make non-competent bacteria uptake plasmids?
answer
chemical treatment and heat shock
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what type of media is LB?
answer
complex
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what type of test is EMB?
answer
selective and differential
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how is EMB selective?
answer
only gram negative can grow
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How is EMB differential?
answer
gram negative bacteria differentiated on ability to ferment lactose or sucrose
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selective test EMB (growth or no growth)
answer
growth: gram-negative
no growth: gram positive
no growth: gram positive
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differential test EMB (dark red or colorless)
answer
dark red/hot pink/ green: (+) for lactose/ sucrose fermentation
colorless: (-) for lactose/sucrose
colorless: (-) for lactose/sucrose
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What should you remember with TSI slant?
answer
stab the butt
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what is an antigen?
answer
a toxin or other foreign substance that induces an immune response in the body
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what is an antibody?
answer
secreted form of an immune cell receptor that will bind to a specific antigen
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What is precipitation?
answer
combination of antibody molecule with a soluble antigen
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What is aggulation?
answer
clumping of blood
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benefits of a rapid strep test?
answer
test is obtained faster
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how does a strep test work?
answer
contains antibody again s progenies antigen
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what does the Rh determine?
answer
positive or negative blood type
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How does erythroblastosis fetalis happen?
answer
mom having second child who is Rh+ but mom is Rh-
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How can that be prevented?
answer
the RhoGam drug
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what is a covalent plasma?
answer
Plasma donated by people who have recovered from a specific disease
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What must be considered with plasma donation?
answer
blood type
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What is the universal donor?
answer
Type O
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what is the universal recipient?
answer
AB
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What is the Rh antigen?
answer
D antigen
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What is erythroblastosis fetalis?
answer
Occurs when a pregnant mother's Rh negative antibodies cross the placenta and attack the RBCs of her unborn child.
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What is media used for?
answer
blood agar
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What is alpha hemolysis?
answer
partial hemolysis
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What is Beta hemolysis?
answer
complete lysis of red blood cells
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•What is Gamma hemolysis?
answer
no hemolysis
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What is cytolytic activity?
answer
ability to lyse any cell
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•What does the presence of beta hemolysis indicate on a throat culture plate?
answer
strep throat
question
what genera of bacteria are LAB?
answer
Streptococcus and Lactobacillus; Streptococcus thermophilus and Lactobacillus bulgaricus are the specific species
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what types of bacteria are they? (yogurt)
answer
acidophilus and thermopiles
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what happens during lactic acid fermentation? (yogurt)
answer
lactose is converted into lactic acid
question
acid byproducts (yogurt)
answer
prevent spoilage by microbes that are not acid-tolerant
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what temperature does lactic acid fermentation?
answer
45 celcius
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why do we use pasteurization with yogurt?
answer
to eliminate the pathogenic bacteria but not the good bacteria
question
which president donated 15 million dollars?
answer
bush
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name of the organization (bending the arc)
answer
partners in health
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what did she recommend to 12 year old girls?
answer
cervical cancer?