MIC 201 Exam 2 2013

The use of nitrate by Escherichia coli is important to the organism because nitrate:
a) is used to form the cell wall
b) is a final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration
c) reactions occur without the benefit of the Kreb's cycle
d) is used to build proteins

When aerobic bacterium Pseudomonas aeruginosa is fed glucose and the products from the bacterial respiration are measured, you would expect to find:
a) CO2
b) ATP
c) CO2 and H2O
d) CO2, H2O, and ATP

Electrons for oxidative phosphorylation can originate from:
a) only the Kreb's cycle reactions
b) only the reactions of photosynthesis
c) only the reactions of glycolysis
d) both the Kreb's cycle and glycolysis
e) both the Kreb's cycle and photosynthesis

Most oxidation reactions in bacteria involve the ________:
a) removal of hydrogen ions and electrons
b) removal of oxygen
c) addition of hydrogen ions and electrons
d) addition of hydrogen ions

Bacterial photosynthesis can be distinguished from plant photosynthesis because it fails to produce:
a) ATP
b) glucose
c) reducing power
d) oxygen

The m-RNA that codes for a particular protein will have _____ nucleotides for each amino acid in the protein being synthesized:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

At a chromosome replication fork, the lagging strand consists of _______ that are joined by ________.
a) plasmid fragments, DNA polymerase
b) RNA sequences, ligase
c) Okazaki fragments, RNA polymerase
d) RNA sequences, ribosomes
e) Okazaki fragments, ligase

Which one of the following is NOT part of an operon? If the answer is all, then select E.
a) Regulatory gene
b) Operator
c) Promoter
d) structural genes
e) All the above are part

Transformation refers to:
a) using a virus to transfer DNA fragments
b) DNA fragments transferred between live donor and recipient cells
c) the formation of a transduced cell
d) the formation of an F- recombinant cell
e) the transfer of naked fragments of DNA

Competence is the ability of:
a) donor cells to transfer DNA fragments
b) phage to carry chromosomal DNA fragments
c) recipient cells to take up DNA fragments
d) F+ and F- cells to conjugate
e) plasmids to be spliced with a foreign DNA

An Hfr cell:
a) has a free F factor in the cytoplasm
b) lacks pili
c) has a chromosomally-integrated F factor
d) contains a prophage for conjugation
e) cannot conjugate with an F- recombinant

________ seals the sticky ends of recombinant DNA segments:
a) DNA ligase
b) helicase
c) restriction endonuclease
d) protease
e) RNA polymerase

Plasmids are:
a) closed loops of DNA
b) accessory genetic information
c) used for genetic engineering
d) opened by restriction endonuclease
e) all the above (a-d) are correct

Bacterial pathogens needing iron often produce:
a) streptokinase enzymes
b) leukocidins
c) hemolysins
d) hyaluronidase enzymes
e) coagulase enzymes

Endotoxins are composed of _________ and are located in the ________ of a gram-negative bacterium:
a) carbohydrate, cell membrane
b) protein, cell wall
c) lipid, pili
d) protein, glycocalyx
e) lipid and polysaccharide, cell wall

A newborn baby:
a) contains indigenous microbiota before birth
b) remains sterile for many weeks after birth
c) becomes colonized soon after conception
d) is colonized with many common microbiota within a few days after birth
e) non of the above (a-d) are correct

The prodromal phase of an infectious disease is characterized by:
a) a recovery
b) mild signs and symptoms
c) lessening symptoms
d) specific signs and symptoms
e) no symptoms

Some virulent ______ form a blood clot by producing ________:
a) bacterial cells, streptokinase
b) viruses, hyaluronidase
c) staphylococci, coagulase
d) viruses, hemolysin
e) staphylococci, leukocidin

(T/F) Indirect method of disease transmission includes kissing and handshaking

Which pair of cells represents granulocytes?
a) basophils and lymphocytes
b) neutrophils and dendritic cells
c) neutrophils and eosinophils
d) eosinophils and monocytes
e) lymphocytes and monocytes

The secondary lymphoid tissues include the ______ and the _______:
a) thymus, bone marrow
b) bone marrow, tonsils
c) spleen, thymus
d) thymus, lymph nodes
e) spleen, lymph nodes

Which one of the following is NOT a function of complement?
a) stimulation of inflammation
b) lysis of pathogens
c) stimulation of antibody formation
d) formation of membrane attack complexes
e) heightened level of phagocytosis

All of the following are innate immune defenses EXCEPT:
a) antibodies
b) the skin
c) phagocytosis
d) interferon
e) lysozyme

A monomeric antibody such as IgG, consists of:
a) one light and one heavy chain
b) one light and two heavy chains
c) two light and two heavy chains
d) four light chains
e) four heavy chains

This antibody class crosses the placenta:
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgM
d) IgG
e) both c and d are correct

A(n) ________ mechanism facilitates the elimination of toxins from the body:
a) opsonization
b) precipitation
c) agglutination
d) membrane attack
e) neutralization

Which one of the following (a-d) is NOT used to make a vaccine?
a) viruses
b) toxins
c) antibiotics
d) bacteria
e) all the above (a-d) are correct

An example of a conjugated vaccine is:
a) Hib
b) Sabin polio vaccine
c) Hepatitis B vaccine
d) DPT
e) any toxoid vaccine

The serological reaction where antigens and antibodies form an extensive lattice structure is called:
a) fixation
b) precipitation
c) neutralization
d) intoxication
e) agglutination

Immune complex formation and serum sickness are dangers of:
a) artificially-acquired passive immunity
b) naturally-acquired active immunity
c) artificially-acquired active immunity
d) naturally-acquired passive immunity
e) both a and d are correct

An attenuated vaccine contains:
a) inactive toxins
b) living, but slow-growing (replicating) antigens
c) killed bacteria
d) non-replicating viruses
e) non-infective antigen subunits

What serological technique is used to measure the concentration of very small antigens, such as haptens?
a) ELISA
b) gene probes
c) radioimmunoassay
d) immunodiffusion
e) fluorescent antibody technique

All of the following are types of immediate hypersensitivities EXCEPT:
a) asthma
b) contact dermatitis
c) blood transfusions
d) food allergies
e) hay fever

In type I hypersensitivity, ________ antibodies bind to ______:
a) IgE, T-cels
b) IgG, B cells
c) IgE, mast cells
d) IgA, basophils
e) IgD, mast cells

Rh antigens are found on the surface of:
a) phagocytes
b) red blood cells
c) pathogens
d) tissue cells
e) lymphocytes

An induration is:
a) a lung lesion caused by asthma
b) the result of IgE cross-linking on mast cells
c) a thickening and drying of the skin tissue
d) typical of a sensitized individual undergoing a tuberculin skin test
e) both c and d are correct

______ is a graft between genetically different members of the same species:
a) xenograft
b) transgraft
c) autograft
d) allograft
e) isograft

Which one if the following is a complication of streptococcal pharyngitis?
a) rheumatic fever
b) pseudomembrane blockage
c) tubercle formation
d) menigococcemia
e) Waterhouse-Frederichsen syndrome

The presence of a pseudomembrane is a result of:
a) strep throat
b) meningitis
c) scarlet fever
d) diphtheria
e) psittacosis

Acid-fast staining is a characteristic of:
a) Mycoplasma
b) Streptococcus
c) Klebsiella
d) Coxiella
e) Mycobacterium

A paroxysm is a ________ and is characteristic of ________:
a) fever, meningitis
b) rapid-fire cough, meningitis
c) fever, pneumonia
d) headache, pertussis
e) rapid-fire cough, pertussis

(T/F) The man virulence factor for Streptococcus pneumonia is polysaccharide capsule

The Mantoux Test is used to identify:
a) TB exposure
b) Q fever
c) ornithosis
d) pertussis
e) meningitis

Disease associated with Shigella species is usually accompanied by a syndrome of cramps and bloody stool called:
a) hemorrhagic colitis
b) HUS
c) Rose spots
d) dysentery
e) rice-water stools

The fever pattern of brucellosis gives the disease its alternative name of ________ fever:
a) typhoid
b) undulant
c) Yersinia
d) yellow
e) none of the above (a-d) are correct

Escherichia coli is a common gram-______ that can be a cause of:
a) negative coccus, botulism
b) positive rod, hemorrhagic colitis
c) negative rod, traveler's diarrhea
d) positiv coccus, typhoid fever
e) negative rod, typhoid fever

A small percentage of those who recover from _______ remain carriers and can spread the organism in their feces:
a) botulism
b) undulant fever
c) brucellosis
d) listeriosis
e) typhoid fever

_____ food poisoning has a relatively short incubation period and is caused by a toxin deposited in food during aerobic bacterial growth:
a) staphylococcal
b) E. coli
c) clostridial
d) Listeria
e) Yernsinia

(T/F) botulism toxin causes blurred vision, slurred speech and difficulty swallowing

Bonus: Botulism toxin can be used as an antidote for tetanus toxin. Can tetanus toxin be used for an antidote for botulism? Why or why not?