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Economic choice is the result of
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scarcity
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What do economists mean when they say a good is scarce?
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the amount of the good that people would like exceeds the supply freely available from nature
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What is a key economic idea?
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Incentives matter; human choice is influenced in predictable ways by changes in personal costs and benefits
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The expression, "there is no such thing as free lunch" implies that
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opportunity costs are incurred when resources are used to produce goods and services
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Which is not a basic economic question that all economies must answer?
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which government agency will set the prices of the goods and services?
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What types of economies require that we answer the questions of what, how, and for whom to produce goods and services?
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market economies, centrally planned economies, and mixed economies
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Which term best relates to a fair distribution of economic benefits?
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equity
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Positive economics differs from normative economics in that
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positive economic statements are testable, and normative statements are not
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What is a positive economic statement?
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an increase in the minimum wage will reduce employment
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The basic difference between macro and micro is that
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macro is concerned with the forest (aggregate markets) while micro is concerned with the individual trees (subcomponents)
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What best reflects the concept of opportunity cost?
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"time is money"
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If an economy is operating at a point inside the production possibilities curve,
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its resources are not being used efficiently
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If the production possibilities frontier is linear, then
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opportunity costs are constant as more of one good is produced
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With voluntary exchange,
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both the buyer and seller will be made better off
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Absolute advantage is the ability of an individual, a firm, or a country to
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produce more of a good or service than competitors using the same amount of resources
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If a firm or a nation desires to maximize its output, each productive assignment should be carried out by those persons who
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have a comparative advantage in the productive activity
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What is the role of the entrepreneur?
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to bring together the factors of production (labor, capital, and natural resources), to take risks, and to operate a buisness that produces a good or service
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According to Adam Smith, what is is the instrument the invisible hand uses to direct economic activity?
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price
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What will most likely occur under a system of clearly defined and enforced private property rights?
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resource owners will gain by discovering and employing their resources in ways that are highly valued by other
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"A reduction in gasoline prices caused the demand for gasoline to increase. The lower gas prices also led to an increase in demand for large cars, causing their prices to rise." These statements
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contain one error; the lower gasoline prices would cause an increase in the quantity demanded of gasoline, not an increase in demand
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What would most likely increase the demand for peanut butter?
a) decrease in the price of jelly, a good that is often used with peanut butter
b) the discovery that excessive consumption of peanut butter is harmful to one's health
c) crop failures that raise the price of peanuts
d) the invention of a new product that consumers think is a good substitute for peanut butter
a) decrease in the price of jelly, a good that is often used with peanut butter
b) the discovery that excessive consumption of peanut butter is harmful to one's health
c) crop failures that raise the price of peanuts
d) the invention of a new product that consumers think is a good substitute for peanut butter
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a) decrease in the price of jelly, a good that is often used with peanut butter
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If cable TV service and satellite TV service are substitutes...
a) a decrease in the price of cable will decrease the demand for satellite TV
b) an increase in the price of cable will decrease the demand for satellite TV
c) an increase in the price of cable will generally have no effect on the demand for satellite TV
d) a decrease in the price of cable will decrease the demand for satellite TV
a) a decrease in the price of cable will decrease the demand for satellite TV
b) an increase in the price of cable will decrease the demand for satellite TV
c) an increase in the price of cable will generally have no effect on the demand for satellite TV
d) a decrease in the price of cable will decrease the demand for satellite TV
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a) a decrease in the price of cable will decrease the demand for satellite TV
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According to the law supply, as price of a good decreases
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sellers will produce less of the goods
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Assume that corn and soybeans are alternatives that could be grown by most farmers. An increase in the price of corn will
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decrease the supply of soybeans
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What would most likely decrease the price of beef?
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lower prices of grains used to produce cattle feed
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If the market price is above the equilibrium price, there will be a tendency for price to decrease, causing
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the quantity demanded to increase and quantity supplied to decrease until they are equal
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A decrease in the supply of a good will
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lead to an increase in the price of the good
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Over the past 20 years both the quantity of health care provided and health care prices have been rising rapidly. Economic theory would suggest that they observed data could best be explained as
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an increase in demand while supply remained relatively constant
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The invisible hand principle indicated that competitive markets can help promote the efficient use of resources
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even when each market participant cares only about their own self-interest rather than about the overall efficiency of resource use
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What is not a fundamental that underlies consumer behavior?
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consumers always make choices with perfect information
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"I like ice cream, but after eating homemade ice cream last night, I want to have something else for dessert today." This statement most clearly reflects
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the law of diminishing marginal utility
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When total utility is maximized, what is true concerning marginal utility?
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marginal utility equals 0
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The market demand for a good
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the horizontal sum of all individual demand curves for the good.
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If a network externality is present for a product, then
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consumers may be more likely to buy the product because it is more useful
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How does the fact that consumers apparently value fairness affect the decisions that businesses make?
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firms will not raise prices in response to an increase in demand
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Which of the following factors best explains why consumers would prefer to go to a restaurant that was popular than another restaurant that had similar décor and serves similar food but had fewer customers?
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some people receive utility from goods they believe are popular
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Economically rational means that consumers and firms
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take actions that are appropriate to reach goals given available information
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According to the endowment effect, people are unwilling to sell a good they already own in which case?
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even if they are offered a price greater than the price they would pay if they did not already own the good
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What reason do economists use to explain why people are overweight?
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people undervalue the utility to be received in the future, peoples preferences are not consistent over time, and people overvalue the utility from current choices
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What is true about marginal benefit?
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consumers marginal benefit is equal to the height of the demand curve, consumers will continue to purchase a good up until the point where marginal benefit equals price, and marginal benefit declines as consumption increases because of the law of diminishing marginal utility.
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John advertises his used car for $3,000 in the newspaper. He would be willing to sell his used car for as low as $2,000. He is offered $2,600 for if from a buyer and accepts it. In this trade, John receives
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producer surplus of $600
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Economic efficiency is
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a market outcome in which the marginal benefit to consumers of the last unit produced is equal to its marginal cost of production and in which the sum of consumer surplus and producer surplus is at a maximum
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Rent control has been used extensively in NYC. Economic theory suggests that rent controls
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result in poor service and quality deterioration of many rental units
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What is the most likely result of an increase in the minimum wage?
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a decrease in the employment of unskilled workers
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The term tax incidence refers to
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the actual division of the burden of a tax
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The laffer curve illustrates the concept that
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when marginal tax rates are quite high, a decrease in the tax rate may cause tax revenues to increase
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What term corresponds to a market in which buying and selling takes place at prices that violate government price regualtions?
answer
black market
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Economic efficiency requires that
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all economic activity generating more benefits than costs be undertaken.
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when production of a good generates external costs, the
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supply curve for the good will understate the true social cost of producing the good
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What correctly describes the external benefit resulting from an individual's purchase of a winter flu shot?
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The flu shot reduces the likelihood others will catch the flu
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Suppose paper pulp mills are permitted to emit harmful pollutants, free of charge, into the air. How will the price and output of paper in a competitive market compare with their values under conditions of ideal economic efficiency?
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the price will be too low and the output will be too large
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When a positive externality is present in producing a good or service, _____ of the good or service will be produced at private market equilibrium
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too little
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What is the focus of a command and control approach to reducing pollution?
answer
imposing quantitative limits on the amount of pollution firms are allowed to generate
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What is the best example of a public good?
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national defense
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Markets may have difficulty providing the proper quantity of a public good because
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individuals will tend to become free-riders and private firms will have difficulty generating enough revenue to produce an efficient quantity of the good
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What is the tragedy of the commons?
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the tragedy of the commons refers to the tendency for a common resource to be overused
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Competitive markets generally give consumers and producers correct incentives when
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property rights are well-defined and enforced
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If you know the value for price elasticity of demand, then what can you compute?
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the effect of a price change on the quantity demanded, the responsiveness of the quantity supplied of a good changes in the price, and the price elasticity of supply
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If a 50 percent increase in the price of hula hoops led to a 10 percent reduction in the quantity of hula hoops demanded, the price elasticity of demand is
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0.2 and the demand for hula hoops is inelastic
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When the price elasticity of demand is greater than one, it means that demand is
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elastic and the % change in quantity is greater than the % change in price
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Suppose that the quantity of chain saws sold increased from 200 to 400 when the price fell from $225 to $175. Over this price range, the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand for chain saws is
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2.67
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Which of the following statements is true?
a) the fewer substitutes available for a product, the greater the price elasticity of demand
b) the more time that passes, the more inelastic the demand for a product becomes
c) the demand curve for a luxury is less elastic than the demand curve for a necessity
d) the more narrowly defined a product is, the larger the price elasticity of demand
a) the fewer substitutes available for a product, the greater the price elasticity of demand
b) the more time that passes, the more inelastic the demand for a product becomes
c) the demand curve for a luxury is less elastic than the demand curve for a necessity
d) the more narrowly defined a product is, the larger the price elasticity of demand
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d) the more narrowly defined a product is, the larger the price elasticity of demand
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If a sandwich shop near campus increases its prices by 5 percent, and revenues from its sales increase, the price elasticity of demand for the services offered by the sandwich shop must be
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inelastic
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What is true regarding the price elasticity of demand?
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demand is generally more elastic in the long run than in the short run, along a single demand curve, demand elasticity decreases as you move down the curve (to lower prices), and a demand curve that is flatter is relatively more elastic than a demand curve that has a steeper slope
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An increase in the price of a substitute for Good X will lead to _ in the quantity demanded of Good X, so the cross-price elasticity of demand will be _.
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increase; positive
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Jane received a 10 percent increase in her salary and purchased 20 percent more jewelry. For Jane, jewelry
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has an income elasticity of 2, is a normal good, and is a luxury good
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The more elastic the supply of a product, the more likely it is that the burden of a tax will
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fall on buyers
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Which of the following represents a long-run adjustment?
a) the hiring of 4 additional cashiers by a supermarket
b) a cutback on purchases of iron ore by a steel manufacturer
c) construction of a new assembly-line plant by a car manufacturer
d) the extra does of fertilizer used by a farmer on his wheat crop
a) the hiring of 4 additional cashiers by a supermarket
b) a cutback on purchases of iron ore by a steel manufacturer
c) construction of a new assembly-line plant by a car manufacturer
d) the extra does of fertilizer used by a farmer on his wheat crop
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c) construction of a new assembly-line plant by a car manufacturer
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Which of the following is most likely to be an implicit cost of production?
a) property taxes on a building owned by the firm
b) transportation costs paid to a trucking supplier
c) rental payments for a building utilized by the company and rented from another party
d) interest income forgone on funds invested in the firm by the owners
a) property taxes on a building owned by the firm
b) transportation costs paid to a trucking supplier
c) rental payments for a building utilized by the company and rented from another party
d) interest income forgone on funds invested in the firm by the owners
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d) interest income forgone on funds invested in the firm by the owners
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What refers to the total output produced divided by the quantity of workers?
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average product of labor
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The law of diminishing marginal returns indicates why
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a firms marginal costs will eventually increase as the firm expands output in the short run
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The firm's average total costs will be at a minimum at the output level where the
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marginal cost curve crosses the firms average total cost curve
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When costs that vary with the level of output are divided by the output, you have calculated
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average variable cost
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In the short run, if average variable cost equals $50, average total cost equals $75, and output equals 100, the total fixed cost must be
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$2,500
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Mr. Hudson notes that if he produces 10 pairs of shoes per day, his average fixed cost is $14 and his marginal cost is $8; if he produces 20 pairs of shoes per day, his marginal cost is $15. What is his average fixed cost when output is 20 pairs of shoes per day?
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$7
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The average variable cost curve and the average total cost curve become closer together as output increases because
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average fixed cost, which is the difference between them, declines with output
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When a firm increases its plant size in the long run and its per unit costs fall, this is called
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economies of scale and is shown by the downward sloping portion of the LRATC curve
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A market is perfectly competitive if
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it has many buyers and many sellers, all of whom are selling identical products, with no barriers to new firms entering the market
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Why do single firms in perfectly competitive markets face horizontal demand curves?
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with many firms selling an identical product, single firms have no effect on market price
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Perfectly competitive firms should produce the quantity where
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the difference between total revenue and total cost is as large as possible
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If marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost at the current level of output, profit will increase when output is expanded because
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producing and selling an additional unit will add more to total revenue than it adds to total cost
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If a perfectly competitive firm's price is less than its average total cost but greater than its average variable cost, the firm
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is incurring a loss
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A perfectly competitive firm's supply curve is its
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marginal cost curve above its minimum average variable cost
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When are firms likely to enter an industry? When are they likely to exit?
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economic profits attract firms to enter an industry and economic losses cause firms to exit an industry
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In a monopolistically competitive industry, the firms will
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be able to choose their price, and the entry barriers into the market will be low
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The marginal revenue curve lies below the demand curve for monopolistically competitive firm because
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in order for a monopolistically competitive firm to sell an extra unit, it must cut the price on all units. The lowered price offsets the additional revenue from the extra unit sold, so the marginal revenue is lower than the price.
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If a monopolistically competitive firm can sell 4 units at a price of $6 or 5 units at a price of $5, the marginal revenue of the 5th unit is
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25-24=$1
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For the monopolistically competitive firm
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price will exceed marginal cost at the profit maximizing level of output, price will equal average total cost in the long run, and economic profit will be driven to zero in the long run by the entry and exit of firms
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In the long run, neither perfectly competitive nor monopolistically competitive firms will be able to earn economic profits because
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competition will force prices down the the level of per unit production costs
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If firms in a monopolistically competitive market are currently earning economic losses, then in the long run,
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some existing firms will exit the market, and the remaining firms will experience an increase in demand for their products until 0 economic profit is again restored
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What long run equilibrium conditions are present in perfectly competitive and monopolistically competitive markets?
answer
MR=MC, and P=ATC
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If a market is in long-run equilibrium, which of the following conditions will be present in a perfectly competitive market but absent from a monopolistically competitive market?
answer
P=MC
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Some economists have argued that monopolistically competitive firms are productively inefficient relative to perfectly competitive firms because
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unlike perfectly competitive firms, monopolistically competitive firms do not produce at the minimum of their average total cost curves.
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Compared to the outcome when the firms are perfectly competitive, monopolistically competitive markets will result in
answer
a wider variety of products and higher prices
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Unlike in perfectly competitive markets, in monopolistically competitive markets
answer
firms face downward sloping demand curves and the products competitors sell are differentiated