question
gram stain reagents
answer
crystal violet, iodine, acetone-alcohol, safranin
question
gram stain steps
answer
primary stain, mordant, decolorizer, counter-stain
question
P-purple
answer
gram positive
question
Red, hot, bad
answer
gram NEGATIVE
question
a mordant is used for
answer
adherence or enhancement of the primary stain
question
a primary stain is used to
answer
color all cells the same
question
decolorizer is used to
answer
remove stain from the negative cells, crystal violet particles are entrapped in the peptidoglycan of positive PURPLE cells
question
counterstain is used to
answer
stain the gram negative RED cells
question
agar
answer
is an extract from red marine algae used in culture media as a solidifying agent
question
agar liquifies at
answer
100c
question
agar solidifies at
answer
40c
question
transient microbes
answer
are temporary guests that come and go
question
normal microbes
answer
are permanent residents
question
lyme disease is caused by...
answer
Borrelia burgdorferi
question
ocular lens
answer
eyepieces of the microscope-remagnifies the image formed by the objective lens
question
body tube
answer
the ocular lenses are attached to...transmits the image from the objectivelens to the ocular lens
question
arm
answer
the main backbone of the scope, the best place to carry the microscope
question
objective lenses
answer
primary lenses that manify the specimen
question
mechanical stage
answer
holds the microscope slide in place
question
condenser
answer
focuses light through the specimen
question
diaphragm
answer
directly beneath the condenser, controls the amount of light entering the condenser
question
illuminator
answer
the light source of the microscope, located in the base of the microscope
question
coarse focusing knob
answer
large focusing wheel on the side
question
fine focusing knob
answer
smaller focusing wheel on the side
question
base
answer
foundation of the microscope
question
dental caries is caused by....
answer
Streptoccus mutans.....strep-strip of gram positive PURPLE cocci
question
normal flora found in the nose, skin or places of high osmotic pressure...yellow clusters
answer
Staphylococcus aureus
question
causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
answer
Rickettsia rickettsii, gram negative rods or cocci that are obligate intracellular parasites
question
resolution
answer
the microscopes ability to distinguish between two points at the particular resolution or higher
question
cocci
answer
round
question
bacillus
answer
rod shaped
question
spiral
answer
corkscrew`
question
cluster
answer
group of cocci
question
chain
answer
strip of cocci
question
Incubation temperature of cultures
answer
35c
question
why 35c to incubate cultures
answer
close to body temperature
question
biobags, sharps containers
answer
disposal of hazardous waste
question
total magnification
answer
ocular lens multiplied by the objective lens
question
field of vision
answer
the area seen through a microscope
question
resolving power
answer
the microscopes resolution is the ability of lenses to reveal fine detail or two points distinctly seperated
question
numerical aperture
answer
the resolution is a function of the wavelength of light used and a characteristic of the lens system
question
refractive index
answer
the amount light bends
question
focal point
answer
as light rays pass through a lens they are bent to converge at one point
question
sperical aberration
answer
fuzziness due to mutiple focal points
question
monochromatic light
answer
use of one lightsource with one wavelength
question
parfocal
answer
object is in focus in with one lens
question
complex media
answer
media for which the exact chemical composition varies batch to batch
question
chemically defined media
answer
a medium whose exact composition is known
question
nutrient broth
answer
liquid complex media
question
nutrient agar
answer
solid complex media
question
inoculated
answer
introduction of microbes to media
question
turbid
answer
cloudy
question
colony
answer
population of cells that arises from a single bacterial cell
question
colony forming unit
answer
unit of measure for microbes, a population of cells that arises from a single bacterial cell
question
flocculation
answer
clumps of microbial cells
question
membrane
answer
pellicle
question
sediment
answer
settlement at the bottom of the liquid media
question
contaiminants
answer
unwanted microbes in the media
question
aseptic technique
answer
used in microbiology to exclude contaiminants
question
sterilized
answer
free of all life
question
structural stains
answer
used to identify and study the structure of bacteria
question
endospores
answer
resting bodies
question
virulence
answer
disease causing ability
question
Lowest Magnification
answer
Used when first looking @ the slide. Either 4x or 10x
question
Spirochetes
answer
Axial filaments; Cause lyme disease and syphillis
question
resolution
answer
Microscopes ability to distinguish between 2 points greater than or equal to 0.2um
question
Total Magnification
answer
multiply the magnification of the onjective lense usually 10x
question
Flagella Stain
answer
spiral with polar flagella
question
Capule stain
answer
Pink, looks splotchy
question
Gram Neg
answer
Red
question
Gram Pos
answer
Purple
question
purple
answer
gram + (color)
question
pink
answer
gram - (color)
question
crystal violet, gram's iodine, acetone alcohol, safranin
answer
Gram stain colors
question
red
answer
Acid Fast +
question
blue
answer
Acid Fast -
question
Carbofuchsin, heat, acid alcohol, methylene blue
answer
List Acid fast colors
question
red with green center
answer
endospores present
question
red
answer
no endospores present (color)
question
malachite green, heat, safranin
answer
List Endospore stain colors
question
Endospores
answer
_______-resistant to heat and chemicals, made of proteins
question
Capsules
answer
structure that increases virulence, less vulnerable to phagocytosis
question
halo
answer
capsule +
question
no halo
answer
capsule -
question
gram + cocci
answer
Mannitol Salt Agar gram??
question
Gram - rods
answer
MacConkey- gram??
question
inhibited by salt
answer
Mannitol salt- poor growth/ no growth
question
not inhibited by salt
answer
Mannitol salt- good growth
question
mannitol fermentation produce acid
answer
Mannitol salt- yellow
question
did not ferment mannitol
answer
Mannitol salt- red
question
inhibited by crystal violet/ blue
answer
MacConkey- poor growth/ no growth
question
not inhibited by crystal violet/ blue
answer
MacConkey- good growth
question
produce acid from lactose fermentation
answer
MacConkey- green or red
question
did not ferment lactose
answer
MacConkey- colorless
question
Blood Agar- beta hemolysis
answer
Complete clearing, organism is able to hemolyze RBCs
question
Blood Agar- alpha hemolysis
answer
partial clearing (greening)
question
Blood Agar- Y hemolysis
answer
organism does not hemolyze RBCs
question
catalase
answer
detoxifies hydrogen peroxide
question
starch hydrolysis
answer
bacteria's ability to hydrolyze starch with amylase
question
amylase
answer
Hydrolytic enzyme uses water to breakdown starch
question
Gelatin hydrolysis
answer
secretion of gelatinase by microbes to hydrolyze gelatin
question
secreted by microbes to hydrolyze gelatin
answer
Gelatinase
question
Lipase test
answer
Identify bacteria capable of producing the exoenzyme lipase
question
Clearing blue halo
answer
Lipase +
question
No Clearing blue halo
answer
Lipase -
question
Decarboxylase
answer
enzyme that removes the decarboxyl group of an amino acid to yield an amine and CO2
question
Decarboxylase +
answer
decarboxylase- pH becomes alkaline (purple)
question
Fermentation/Decarboxylase -
answer
decarboxylase- yellow acidic
question
no decarboxylation
answer
decarboxylase- no color change
question
Coliform Test
answer
ferment lactose with the production of acid & gas when incubated at 35-37C
question
Fermentation with acid and gas
answer
Coliform test- yellow/ bubbles
question
Fermentation with acid and no gas
answer
Coliform test- yellow/ no bubbles
question
No fermentation
answer
Coliform test- red/ no bubbles
question
Degradation of peptone, alkaline end product
answer
Coliform test- pink/ no bubbles
question
Eosin Methylene Blue Plate
answer
isolate colonies, cause lactose fermentation bacteria to produce a purple color, black center, or metallic sheen.
question
Gram +
answer
EMB- growth inhibited by EMB (poor growth/no growth)
question
Gram -
answer
EMB- growth not inhibited by EMB (good growth)
question
Possible Coliform
answer
EMB- pink and mucoid- organism ferments lactose with little acid production
question
Probable Coliform
answer
EMB- Dark purple with or without green metallic sheen. Organism ferments lactose and or sucrose with much acid production
question
Non Coliform
answer
EMB- growth is colorless- organism does not ferment lactose or sucrose
question
Phenol red turns yellow if acid is present
answer
Carbohydrate Metabolism color?
question
Yellow with bubbles
answer
Carbohydrate Metabolism- fermentation/ acid / gas production
question
Yellow no bubbles
answer
Carbohydrate Metabolism- fermentation/ acid/ no gas production
question
red no bubbles
answer
Carbohydrate Metabolism- no fermentation, no acid, no gas production (color)
question
pink no bubbles
answer
Carbohydrate Metabolism- degradation of peptone, alkaline end product
question
Citrate Test
answer
ability of an organism to use citrate as its sole carbon source (instead of utilizing glucose)
question
Citrate utilized
answer
Citrate test- Blue, small growth
question
Citrate utilized
answer
Citrate test- no color change, growth
question
Citrate not utilized
answer
Citrate test- no color change, no growth
question
MR Test
answer
Test indicates an organism's ability to produce large amounts of ACID from glucose
question
VP test
answer
Test used to detect the presence of acetoin
question
MR
answer
Methyl Red
question
VP
answer
Potassium hydroxide and a-naphthol
question
mixed acid fermentation
answer
MR Test- Red
question
no mixed acid fermentation
answer
MR Test- no color change (stays yellow)
question
Acetoin
answer
VP Test- Red
question
no Acetoin
answer
VP Test- no color change
question
SIM Test
answer
Test the production of sulfide reduction, indole, and motility
question
Black
answer
Sulfer reduced to sulfide which reacts with Fe+ and becomes ____
question
reddish, trypthophan is broken down into indole and pyruvate
answer
Indole is detected by Fe+ (color)
question
Kovac's reagent
answer
use of ______ to breakdown tryptophan into indole and pyruvate
question
Phenol Red
answer
Water Coliform Test- dye?
question
Phenol Red
answer
Carbohydrate Metabolism- dye?
question
Lugol's Iodine
answer
Starch hydrolysis- dye?
question
Kovac's Reagent
answer
SIM test- dye?
question
Hydrogen Peroxide
answer
Catalase Test- dye?
question
Bromthymol blue
answer
Citrate Test- dye?
question
Eosin Methylene Blue
answer
EMB test- dye?
question
Resident Flora/ Normal Flora
answer
Colonize on body. Symbiotic relationship.
question
Commensalism
answer
One benefits, other indifferent.
question
Mutualism
answer
Both benefit. A lot of this occurs in the stomach and intestines.
question
Transient Flora
answer
May be on any body for short period of time. They don't colonize on body.
question
Opportunistic Pathogens
answer
Doesn't cause disease in healthy individuals, under certain conditions can cause disease. Exs: yeast infection - Candida albicans.
question
Pathogens
answer
Disease causing.
question
Microbial Antagonism
answer
Typically normal flora inhabit and colonize the body and prevent other pathogens from colonizing on the body. Microbes competing against one another for space and nutrients.
question
Chemically Defined Medium
answer
ExaExact chemical component is known.
question
Complex Media
answer
Exact chemical component is not known, varies slightly from batch to batch - usually some type of extract used. Exs: Nutrient broth or agar, TSA - tryptic soy agar, meat extracts, peptone - partially digested proteins.
question
What is Agar?
answer
Extracts from marine algae. Main function is a solidifying agent. Most microbes can't degrade it so it remains solid.
question
What are some characteristics of Agar?
answer
Agar doesn't have any nutrients. Agar is only used as a solidifying agent. There is no nutritional value. Solid at 40°C and liquid at 100°C
question
What are the building blocks of life?
answer
Carbon, Nitrogen, Protein
question
Autoclaving
answer
Steam sterilization under pressure.
question
Colony
answer
All bacteria are genetically identical.
question
Soaps and Detergents
answer
Function as surfactants. Decreases surface tension of water. Emulsifies fats and oily film on skin. Either kills bacteria or more importantly removes them from skin.
question
Surfactants
answer
Wetting agents decrease surface tension.
question
Biocide
answer
High concentration gradient. Targets membrane and cytoplasm.
question
Bacteriostatic
answer
Low concentration gradient. Targets fatty acid synthesis.
question
How do soaps target fatty acid synthesis?
answer
Binds to ENR (ethyl-acyl carrier protein reductose enzyme). Then binds to NAD (nicotramole adenne dinucleotide). This new structure can't participate in fatty acid synthesis. Fatty acid needed for cells to grow.
question
Diagram of what is happening when fatty acid synthesis is disabled
answer
Tricloson ----binds to--- ENR---which binds to---NAD. Now the entire structure of Tricloson-ENR-NAD can't participate in fatty acid synthesis.
question
Different types of resistance for soaps and detergents.
answer
Mutations in gene for ENR-> ENR won't bind to tricloson.
Overexpressed gene for ENR -> more ENR some still function.
Certain bacteria pumps out tricloson (Psuedomonas aeniginosa).
Alternative gene for ENR that doesn't bind to tricloson (Bacillus).
Overexpressed gene for ENR -> more ENR some still function.
Certain bacteria pumps out tricloson (Psuedomonas aeniginosa).
Alternative gene for ENR that doesn't bind to tricloson (Bacillus).
question
Hand Sanitizers
answer
Alcohols (ethanol-drinking, isopropanol-rubbing). Effective against bacteria, fungi, and viruses. Denature proteins and disrupt cytoplasmic membranes.
question
What is optimal % of ethanol?
answer
62-70% of ethanol.
question
Why isn't 100% ethanol optimal?
answer
Because the sanitizer would dry up completely before you are able to kill the bacteria completely. Also, water helps facilitate it faster.
question
What is most predominant type of bacteria in the mouth?
answer
Streptococcus.
question
What are two examples of streptococcus bacteria?
answer
S. mutans and S. sanguinis
question
What do streptococcus produce?
answer
Sticky polysacchrides from sucrose.
question
How does streptococcus hydrolyze sucrose?
answer
nsucrose=glucose(little)n + nfructose
Glucose + energy (polymerization via dextransucrose). Dextran fructose fermented to produce lactic acid.
Glucose + energy (polymerization via dextransucrose). Dextran fructose fermented to produce lactic acid.
question
Dextran
answer
Sticky carbohydrate chains that surround bacteria. Enables bacteria to adhere to the surface of the mouth (teeth).
question
Plaque
answer
Masses of bacteria, dextran, debris adhering to teeth (acts as net that traps sugars and food particles).
question
Lactic acid
answer
Erodes tooth enamel -> caries.
question
Where do streptococci grow?
answer
Exposed dentin and tooth pulp.
question
Sugarless Candies
answer
Usually contain sugar alcohols (sorbitol, mannitol). Can't be converted into dextran (no glucose product). Can still be fermented.
question
Snyder Agar
answer
Contains dextrose (glucose), Bromcresol green (pH indicator).
question
Bromcresol Green
answer
pH indicator. Neutral = green Acidic = yellow Basic = blue. Other ingredients are yeast extract, NaCl, etc.
question
Fructose
answer
Fructose supplies energy and by-product is lactic acid.
question
What microscope do we use in Micro Lab?
answer
Compound Brightfield Microscope
question
Objective Lens
answer
Lens closest to object (4, 10, 40, 100x)
question
Ocular Lens
answer
Closest to eye (10x)
question
How do you figure out total magnification?
answer
objmag x ocu.mag
question
Brightfield
answer
Light passes through speciment. Specimen appears "shadowy" through a bright background.
question
Resolution
answer
Clarity of an image -> the smaller the better.
question
Limit of Resolution (D)
answer
Measurement of how far 2 points must be before the microscope can view them as separate. The smaller D is the better.
question
Equation for Limit of Resolution
answer
D=λ/NA condenser + NA objective lens
question
Refractive Index
answer
Speed of light in substance. Air ~1, Oil ~1.5, Glass ~1.5. Oil matches refractive index of glass so light doesn't "bend". Glass to air means light will "bend" and get lost.
question
How do images appear in a microscope?
answer
It is an upside down mirror image!
question
Pure Culture
answer
Single kind of microbe. Required to study growth, pathogenicity, metabolism, antibiotic susceptibility.
question
What are the 3 current methods for isolation?
answer
Streak plate, spread plate, pour plate.
question
Streak Plate
answer
Stream mixed sample over solid medium in a petri plate. Theoretically bacteria fall off the loop over different areas on the agar and they form a colony.
question
Spread Plate
answer
Sample diluted, spread over solid medium surface use spreading rod.
question
Pour Plate
answer
Diluted sample mixed with agar, poured into empty petri dishes. Colonies form in and on plate.
question
CFU
answer
Colony Forming Units
question
CFU Equation
answer
# of Colonies/Amount plated X Dilution
question
Aseptic Technique
answer
Used to exclude contaminants.
question
Sterilized Culture Media
answer
Autoclave
question
What are the 3 different ways to culture?
answer
Broth, Slant, Agar Deeps
question
Broth
answer
Easy to transport, large population of bacteria. Fast media easily accessible gets nutrients fast but stop growing after 48 hrs.
question
Slant
answer
Easier to store and transport than plates. Small accessible surface, nutrients seep up, maintains cultures for long periods of time.
question
Agar Deeps
answer
Used to grow bacteria that may require Oxygen, also used to determine motility. Bacteria will swim away from point of inoculation. They are a semi-solid.
question
What can we learn from looking at bacteria?
answer
Morphology/shape, Size, Arrangement
question
Why do we use stains and dyes?
answer
Bacteria appears transparent so we use stains and dyes to increase the contrast.
question
Simple Stains
answer
Only one reagent is used.
question
Direct Stains
answer
Stains the bacteria directly.
question
Negative Stains
answer
Stains the background, the bacteria is unstained.
question
What are the 3 kinds of stains?
answer
Simple stains, direct stains, negative stains.
question
How does staining work?
answer
The stains are charged colored ions (chomophores) in solution?
question
Chomophores
answer
Charged colored ions.
question
Cationic
answer
+ charge on the ion
question
Basic Stain
answer
(+) charge on the ion (cationic). Ex: Methylene Blue
question
Anionic
answer
- Charge on the ion.
question
Acidic Stain
answer
(-) Charge on the ion (anionic). Ex: India Ink.
question
What is the bacterial cell wall charged?
answer
Slightly negative.
question
Basic stains...
answer
Stain the bacteria directly.
question
Acidic stains...
answer
Stain around the bacteria.
question
Smear
answer
Thin film of bacteria on a slide.
question
Fixing
answer
Making the bacteria adhere to the slide (coagulating proteins). Also kills the bacteria.
question
Heat Fix
answer
Pass smear through Bunsen Burner.
question
Chemically Fix
answer
Cover in 95% Methanol.
question
Negative Stain Procedure
answer
The culture is mixed with a stain then smeared across the slide (feathering). No heat fixing is used. This is helpful because the cells are not distorted and more accurately show bacteria morphology and size.
question
What techniques do we use to observe live organisms?
answer
Wet Mount and Hanging Drop.
question
Wet Mount
answer
A drop of culture, then a glass coverslip placed over it.
question
What are advantages to a wet mount?
answer
Fast, Cheap, Disposable.
question
What are disadvantages to a wet mount?
answer
Dries fast, so can't be observed long.
question
Hanging Drop
answer
Special slide with depression used, culture drop on inverted coverslip, then placed on depressed slide with petroleum jelly seal.
question
What are advantages to a hanging drop?
answer
Doesn't dry out as fast. You can observe longer.
question
What are disadvantages to a hanging drop?
answer
Special slides used, labor intensive, and expensive.
question
Motility
answer
Self-directed movement of an organism via flagella, cilia, or psuedopod.
question
Flagella
answer
Very long hair-like.
question
Cilia
answer
Very short hair-like.
question
Psuedopod
answer
Foot like.
question
Chemotaxis
answer
Organism can "sense" chemicals and move towards it or away from it.
question
Why are chemotaxis beneficial to bacteria?
answer
Help for pathogenicity since it can evade the hosts defense and spread throughout the body.
question
Brownian Motion
answer
A vibrations motion caused by water molecules colliding with the microorganism.
question
Differential Stains
answer
Involve more than one stain. Allows us to differentiate between various bacteria or bring out specific structures.
question
Gram Stain
answer
Useful for identifying and classifying bacteria. Based on bacteria cell wall properties. Allows us to differentiate between Gram (+) and Gram (-) bacteria.
question
Bacterial Cell Wall
answer
Composed of peptidoglycan.
question
Peptidoglycan
answer
Consists of repeating disaccharides linked with peptides.
question
Two types of disaccharides
answer
N-acetylglutamine (NAG) and N-acetylmutamic acid (NAM)
question
Gram (+) Bacteria
answer
Several layers of peptidoglycan. Very thick and rigid. Contains teichoic acid.
question
Gram (-) Bacteria
answer
Thin layer of peptidoglycan. Contains outer membrane (lipo-polysaccharides, lipoproteins, phospholipids) with porin.
question
Porin
answer
Channels allow for certain molecules to enter.
question
What are the steps in a Gram Stain?
answer
Prepare smear. Let air dry completely. Add crystal violet for 1 min then rinse. Add iodine for 1 min then rinse. Add 95% EtOH for 5-15 seconds then rinse. Add safranin for 1 min then rinse. Blot dry and view.
question
What is the function of crystal violet?
answer
Primary Stain.
question
What color is Gram (+) when crystal violet is added?
answer
Purple
question
What color is Gram (-) when crystal violet is added?
answer
Purple
question
What is the function of Iodine?
answer
Mordant (binding agent).
question
What color is Gram (+) when iodine is added?
answer
Purple
question
What color is Gram (-) when iodine is added?
answer
Purple
question
What is the function of 95% Ethoyl alcohol?
answer
Decolorizing agent.
question
What color is Gram (+) when EtOH is added?
answer
Purple
question
What color is Gram (-) when EtOH is added?
answer
Clear/Colorless
question
What is the function of Safranin?
answer
Counterstain or Secondary Stain
question
What color is Gram (+) when Safranin is added?
answer
Purple
question
What color is Gram (-) when Safranin is added?
answer
Red/Pink
question
What color is Gram (+) bacteria?
answer
Purple!!!
question
What color is Gram (-) bacteria?
answer
Red/Pink
question
What are some reasons for inaccurate results?
answer
Destained too long, destained too short, cells too old.
question
Gram Variable
answer
If you are not able to tell Gram rxn.
question
Clinical application of Gram Staining?
answer
Gram rxn tells us about bacteria so we know which drug to prescribe.
question
Penicillin
answer
Interferes with linking peptide cross bridges. Weakens cell wall and ultimately causes cell lysis. Has a much better effect on Gram (+) bacteria.
question
Acid Fast Bacteria
answer
Retain the primary stain even when treated with acid alcohol. Cell walls contain mycolic acid. Includes Mycobacterium and Nocardia species which include human pathogens as M. tuberculosis and M. Leprae.
question
Mycolic Acid
answer
Waxy lipid, makes cell permeable to most stains.
question
How does acid fast staining work?
answer
Bacteria are first stained with Carbolfuchsin. Acid alcohol is then added. Bacteria that are not acid fast are quickly destained. Since the carbolfuchsin has phenol in it and phenol is more soluble in fat than acid alcohol. The mycolic acid will retain the stain even after the acid alcohol rinses. Methylene Blue is used as a counter-stain.
question
Carbolfuchsin
answer
Red dye containing phenol.
question
Non acid-fast bacteria are stained
answer
blue
question
Acid-fast bacteria are stained
answer
red
question
Is mycolic acid impermeable to methylene blue?
answer
Yes
question
Vegetative Bodies
answer
Bacteria that are actively metablizing.
question
What bacteria produce endospores?
answer
Clostridium and Bacillus species. C. tetani, C. botulism, B. anthracis, C. difficile
question
Endospores
answer
Thick outer layer of keratin. Resistant to heat, drying, detergents, harsh environment, UV, etc. Not actively metabolizing. Smaller and more compact than vegetative bodies.
question
How do endospores form?
answer
The vegetative body compacts DNA and forms endospores. The vegetative body disintegrates. Endospores are formed via sporogenesis.
question
Why do endospores form?
answer
This occurs in harsh environments as a survival mechanism. If nutrients decrease and there is a chance the vegetative body might die then endospores are formed.
question
When do endospores turn back into vegetative bodies?
answer
When environment is more appealing the endospores germinate and are back to being vegetative bodies.
question
Are endospores a reproductive mechanism?
answer
No, it is a survival mechanism. 1 veg. body = 1 endospore.
question
How do we do a smear for endospores and vegetative bodies?
answer
A standard heat-fix smear is prepared. Melachite green added and gently heated over flame. Since endospores have thick later of keratin, heating is required for stain penetration. The Malachite Green was away, then counterstain Safranin is added.
question
What does Safranin stain?
answer
Stains vegetative cell bodies not the endospore.
question
Capsules
answer
Gelatinous coat surrounding certain bacteria (glycocalyx). Composed of uncharged polysaccharides. Size is influenced by media its cultured in. Increases bacteria virulence.
question
How do capsules increase bacterial virulence?
answer
Helps evade phagocytosis, WBC can't hold onto a slippery capsule. Helps bacteria attach to cause infection. Functions as an osmotic barrier, prevents dehydration.
question
How do we do a stain to see capsules?
answer
Prepare a standard negative stain. This will stain the background, neither cell nor capsule will be stained. Add a basic stain (crystal violet) over the prep. This will stain only the cell body. Since capsule has no charge the basic dye will not stain it. Capsule will appear as a "halo" around the stained bacterium against a dark background.
question
Eukaryotes
answer
Contain a nucleus.
question
Heterotrophic
answer
Cannot produce it's own Carbon source, must obtain from environment.
question
Saprophytic
answer
Obtain nutrients from dead matter.
question
Yeast & Molds
answer
Eukaryotes, heterotrophic, some are saprophytic, some are pathogenic. Cell walls composed of chitin. Prefers a low pH and a high concentration of sugar. Special media used to culture.
question
What is the special media used to culture yeast and molds?
answer
Sabouraud Agar
question
Sabouraud Agar
answer
Contains peptone, glucose with a high low pH to inhibit bacterial growth.
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Yeast
answer
Unicellular. Round or ovoid. Asexual reproduction/budding. Can be sexual as well as asexual.
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Dimorphic
answer
Yeast & Mold. Can switch due to environmental cue. Ex: E. albicans, Ustilago mayous
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Molds
answer
Multicellular, filamentous hyphae, asexual or sexual reproduction via spores.
question
How is fungi categorized and identified?
answer
Structually vs. metabolically like bacteria.
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Hyphae
answer
Classified by function.
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Vegetative Hyphae
answer
Grows laterally or underneath surface, absorbs nutrients.
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Reproductive Hyphae
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Grows vertically, gives rise to spores. Can be septated or non-septated.
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Septated
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Hyphae divided into compartments,
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Several hyphae
answer
Mycelium
question
What are the 2 types of asexual spore formation?
answer
Sporangiospores and Conidiospores
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Sporangiospores
answer
Spores formed in a sac (sporangium)
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Conidiospores
answer
Free spores not enclosed by sac.
question
What are 3 different types of media?
answer
Selective media, enrichment media, and differential media.
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Selective Media
answer
Contains chemicals that prevent the growth of unwanted bacteria without inhibiting the growth of the desired bacteria. EX: Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) and eosin Methylene Blue (EMB)
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Enrichment Media
answer
Usually liquid media contains chemicals that enhance the growth of the desired bacteria. Other bacteria will grow but increases the growth of desired bacteria.
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Differential Media
answer
Contains various nutrients that allow us to distinguish one bacteria from another based on how they metabolize, or change media with a waste product.
question
Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)
answer
NaCl - 7.5%. Media is selective for salt tolerant bacteria. Mannitol -1% differentiating properties. Differentiates between Mannitol fermenters and non-mannitol fermenters. Phenol Red - 0.025% pH indicator
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Phenol Red
answer
0.025% pH indicator.
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Pink/Red on Phenol Red
answer
Neutral
question
Yellow on Phenol Red
answer
Acidic
question
Shocking Pink on Phenol Red
answer
Basic
question
What color will something be if it is a mannitol fermenter?
answer
Yellow
question
What makes MSA differential?
answer
Mannitol - 1%
question
What is the MSA differential between?
answer
Mannitol fermenters and non-mannitol fermenters.
question
What makes the MSA selective?
answer
NaCl - 7.5%
question
What is the MSA selective for?
answer
Salt tolerant bacteria.
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Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB)
answer
Lactose: 0.5% sugar, makes it differential. Eosin & Methylene Blue: dyes that make media selective. Gram (+) can't grow: selective for Gram (-) bacteria. Differential for lactose fermenters (purple, green metallic sheen) and non-lactose fermenters (pink/translucent).
question
What makes EMB selective?
answer
Eosin and Methylene Blue dyes.
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What is EMB selective for?
answer
Gram (-) bacteria.
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What makes EMB differential?
answer
Lactose - 0.5% sugar
question
What is EMB differential for?
answer
Lactose fermenters and non-lactose fermenters.
question
What color are lactose fermenters on EMB?
answer
Purple, green metallic sheen.
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What color are non-lactose fermenters on EMB?
answer
Pink, translucent.
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MacConkey Agar
answer
Selective and differential.
question
What makes MacConkey Agar selective?
answer
Bile salts.
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What is MacConkey Agar selective for?
answer
Gram (-) bacteria.
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What makes MacConkey Agar differential?
answer
Lactose
question
What is MacConkey Agar selective for?
answer
Lactose fermenters and non-lactose fermenters.
question
What do lactose fermenters on MacConkey Agar look like?
answer
Red, opaque colonies.
question
What do non-lactose fermenters on MacConkey Agar look like?
answer
Translucent
question
Phenylethyl Alcohol Agar (PEA)
answer
Phenylethyl alcohol inhibits DNA synthesis in Gram (-) bacteria.
question
What makes PEA selective?
answer
Phenylethyl alcohol.
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What is PEA selective for?
answer
Gram (+) bacteria.
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Blood Agar
answer
Defibrinated sheep's blood. NaCl- 0.5% minimize spontaneous hemolysis.
question
What are the different types of hemolytic reactions?
answer
Alpha, Beta, Gamma
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Alpha Hemolysis
answer
Green and cloudy around colony. Partial destruction to water from bacteria. A=Alright
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Beta Hemolysis
answer
Complete hemolysis, clear zone around colony. B=Bad
question
Gamma Hemolysis
answer
No hemolysis. G=Good
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Catabolism
answer
Chemical rxns that release energy from decomposition of organic molecules.
question
What are 3 types of carbohydrates?
answer
Monosaccharides, oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides,
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Monosaccharides
answer
Simple sugars.
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Oligosaccharides
answer
2-20 monosaccharides (disaccharides are most common).
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Polysaccharides
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8 or more monosaccharides.
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Oxidative Catabolism
answer
Requires the presence of oxygen. End products are carbon dioxide and water.
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Fermentative Catabolism
answer
Doesn't require oxygen but can occur in its presence. End products are usually organic acids, some bacteria can produce gas.
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Oxidative Fermentative Test (OF)
answer
Used to determine if an organism is oxidative or fermentative for a carb.
question
What is used in the OF Test?
answer
Semi-solid agar deep with high concentration of carbs and low concentration of peptone. 2 tubes used one is open to air and the other air is kept out of.
question
What is the pH indicator for the OF Test?
answer
Phenol Red
question
How do you read results for the OF Test?
answer
In order to be considered oxidized one tube must be yellow on top and red on the bottom while the other tube must be all red. Yellow indicates acid production.
question
In the OF test what does it mean if both tubes turn yellow?
answer
Glucose was fermented.
question
In order for both tubes to be fermented what must happen?
answer
Both tubes must turn yellow.
question
What is medium used for Sugar Fermentation Test?
answer
Pr-glucose PR- lactose or PR-sucrose
question
How do you read results for SF test?
answer
If yellow is seen in Durham tube than sugar is fermented. If gas bubble is seen then gas is produced.
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What happens if sugar is fermented in SF test?
answer
Turns yellow
question
What happens if gas is produced in SF test?
answer
Bubble in Durham tube.
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Electron Acceptors
answer
Molecules that combine with e- liberated during metabolic processes.
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Reduction
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Gain of e-
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Fermentative
answer
Organic e- acceptor
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Respiration
answer
Inorganic electron acceptors. Ex: Oxygen is final electrons acceptor in aerobic respiration.
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Cytochromes C
answer
Carry e- to oxygen. There are 4 different classes of cytochromes (one is cytochrome C) The oxidase test, tests for the presence of the enzyme e oxidase.
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Catalase
answer
An enzyme produced by most aerobic bacteria which breaks down Hydrogen Peroxide into Water and Oxygen.
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What does the Catalase test test for?
answer
The presence of coenzyme catalase.
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Enzymes
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Proteins that catalyze biochemical rxns.
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Endoenzymes
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Function inside the cell.
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Exoenzymes
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Released from cell to catalyze rxns outside the cell.
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Hydrolytic Enzymes
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Exoenzymes break down substrates with addition of water. EX: Amylase - hydrolyzes starch -> smaller carbs.
question
What is the exoenzyme being tested for in the Casein Hydrolysis Test?
answer
Caseinase
question
What is media for Casein Hydrolysis Test?
answer
Skim milk agar.
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What is theory behind Casein Hydrolysis Test?
answer
It is protein catabolism. Bacteria that produce caseinase will hydrolyze the caseinase around the bacteria colony or streak resulting in a clear zone.
question
What is the exoenzyme being tested for in the Starch Hydrolysis Test?
answer
Amylase.
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What is media in Starch Hydrolysis Test?
answer
Starch Agar Plate (NA supp. with starch).
question
What is theory behind Starch Hydrolysis Test?
answer
It is carb catabolism. Bacteria that produce amylase will hydrolyze. The starch surrounding colony or streaky. Iodine (a starch binding agent) is added to detect presence of absence of starch around bacteria streak.
question
What is the exoenzyme being tested in the Gelatin Hydrolysis Test?
answer
Gelatinase.
question
What is the media used in the Gelatin Hydrolysis Test?
answer
Nutrient gelatin deep (NG).
question
What is the theory behind the Gelatin Hydrolysis Test?
answer
It is protein catabolism. Gelatin is solid at RT. Bacteria that hydrolyze gelatin via gelatinase will break peptide bonds converting media from solid into liquid.
question
What 4 tests make up the IMViC?
answer
I-Indole, M-Methyl Red, V- Voges-Proskauer, C-Citrate.
question
What does the Indole Test test for?
answer
Production of tryptophanase.
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What does the Methyl Red test for?
answer
Acid production from glucose
question
What does the Voges-Proskauer test for?
answer
Production of acetoin from glucose.
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What does the Citrate test for?
answer
Na citrate as only carbon source.
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What is the purpose of Indole Production Test?
answer
Detect bacteria that have tryptophanase.
question
What is the media used in the Indole Production test?
answer
Tryptone broth.
question
What is theory behind Indole Test?
answer
Some bacteria produce tryptophan so an enzyme that can hydrolyze tryptophan into indole, pyruvic acid, and ammonia.
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How do we test for indole production?
answer
Adding Kovacs reagent to detect indole production.
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3 shapes of bacteria
answer
rod, cocci and spiral
question
binary fission
answer
the way that bacteria reproduce
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growth phases
answer
lag, log, stationary, decline
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spores
answer
high resistant survival structure; can withstand boiling water, alcohol, and radiation
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obligate aerobe
answer
require oxygen to grow
question
microaerophilic
answer
prefer oxygen slightly lower than air
question
anaerobe
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cannot use oxygen
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aetotolerant
answer
insensitive to oxygen but can grow in its presence
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obligate anaerobe
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inhibited by oxygen
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facultative
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grow under with condition
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capnophilic
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require an atmosphere that is low in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
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heat
answer
denatures proteins
question
thermal death time
answer
time required to kill bacteria at given temperatures
question
thermal death point
answer
minimum temperature at which the bacteria dies in a given time period
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boiling
answer
faster and more effective at a lower temperature than dry heat; kills microbes by denaturing proteins
question
pasteurization
answer
reduces bacterial population in food and drink
question
holding pasteurization
answer
63°C - bacteria is killed in 30 minutes
question
flash pasteurization
answer
72°C - bacteria is killed in 15-17 seconds
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ultra pasteurization
answer
82°C - bacteria is killed in 3 seconds
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UV light
answer
causes thymine molecules to link together (thymine dimers); sterilizes materials
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filters
answer
high-efficiency air filters (HEPA)
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sterilization
answer
destruction of all living microbes, spores and viruses
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antiseptics
answer
used to destroy pathogens on a living surface
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sanitation
answer
reduces the amount of pathogens or discourages their growth
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disinfectants
answer
applied to fomites for sanitation
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detergents
answer
poke holes in the cell walls; surfactants
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bacterial targets for antimicrobial drugs
answer
protein synthesis, nucleic acid synthesis, cell wall synthesis, cell membrane, folic acid metabolism
question
Penicillin
answer
a mold that produces a substance that kills gram positive bacteria
question
what does Penicillin interfere with
answer
cell wall synthesis, causing the cell to burst or lyse
question
Tetracycline
answer
a broad spectrum antibiotic that binds with calcium
question
what does Tetracycline interfere with
answer
protein synthesis
question
4 mechanisms for antibiotic resistance
answer
antibiotic activation, target modification, active export of antibiotics, alternate metabolic pathway
question
stages of disease progression
answer
incubation period, prodromal period, acme period (climax), period of decline, period of convalescence
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exotoxins
answer
proteins produced during bacterial metabolism
question
endotoxins
answer
released upon disintegration of gram-negative cells
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antitoxins
answer
produced by the host body to neutralize toxins
question
toxoids
answer
toxins whose toxicity has been destroyed but still elicit an immune response
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nosocomial infections
answer
serious health threats within the health care system
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HAIs
answer
healthcare associated infection; occur as a result of receiving treatment for another condition
question
first line of defense
answer
skin, mucous membrane, secretions of the skin and mucous membrane
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second line of defense
answer
phagocytic white blood cells, antimicrobial proteins and the inflammatory response
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monocyte
answer
phagocyte that matures into macrophages in tissue
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lymphocyte
answer
move to the lymph nodes after maturation
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dendritic cell
answer
involved in acquired immunity
question
neutrophil
answer
phagocytes
question
eosinophils
answer
contain toxic compounds to defend against multicellular parasites
question
basophils
answer
similar to mast cells; acting in allergic reactions
question
phagocytosis
answer
capture and digestion of foreign particles
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cytokines
answer
chemical signals
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opsonins
answer
attach to microbes to increase the ability of phagocytes to adhere
question
chemokines
answer
cytokines that attract macrophages and neutrophils to infected tissues
question
defensins
answer
antimicrobial peptides found in various bodily secretions
question
interferons
answer
a group of naturally produced proteins that alert cells to a viral infection
question
inflammatory response
answer
redness, heat, swelling and pain
question
third line of defense
answer
lymphocytes and antibodies
question
IgM
answer
first to appear in the circulatory system after B cell stimulation
question
IgG
answer
(gamma globulin) major circulating antibody
question
IgA
answer
provides resistance in the respiratory and GI tract
question
IgE
answer
plays a role in allergic reactions
question
IgD
answer
cell surface receptor on B cells involved in activated B cells
question
primary antibody response
answer
occurs the first time the body encounters a pathogen
question
secondary antibody response
answer
occurs with subsequent by the same pathogen
question
Organism that causes tetanus
answer
Clostridium tetani; spores
question
symptoms of tetanus
answer
trismus (lockjaw), opisthoyonus (muscle spasms), spasmodic inhalation (seizures of the diaphragm)
question
treatment of tetanus
answer
sedatives, muscle relaxants and Penicillin
question
tetanus vaccination
answer
tetanus toxoid (DTaP)
question
organism that causes Lyme disease
answer
Borellia burgdorferi
question
transmission and symptoms of Lyme disease
answer
ticks; high fever, headaches, skin rash (maculopapular)
question
treatment for Lyme disease
answer
Doxycycline
question
organism that causes Streptococcal disease
answer
Steptococcus pyogenes
question
transmission of Streptococcal disease
answer
respiratory droplets
question
symptoms of Streptococcal disease
answer
sore throat, high fever, red fiery beefy looking tissue in the pharynx
question
treatment for Streptococcal disease
answer
antibiotics like Penicillin or Erythromycin
question
otits media
answer
inner ear infection
question
classification of Streptococcal disease
answer
variant of carbohydrates in the cell wall (groups A-O) and hemolysis
question
alpha hemolysis
answer
partial lysis; green halo
question
beta hemolysis
answer
full lysis; clear halo
question
organism that causes Pneumococcal Meningitis
answer
Streptococcus pneumoniae
question
organism that causes tuberculosis
answer
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
question
transmission of tuberculosis
answer
respiratory droplets
question
symptoms of tuberculosis
answer
chronic cough, chest pain, high fever, SPUTUM THAT MAY CONTAIN BLOOD, malaise, weight loss
question
tubercle
answer
when macrophages accumulate in the lung and harbors M. tuberculosis
question
diagnosis for tuberculosis
answer
Mantoux test
question
vaccine for tuberculosis
answer
attenuated M. bovis (BCG)
question
treatment for tuberculosis
answer
Isoniazid, pyrazinamide, rifampin, rifampentine
question
intoxication
answer
illnesses in which bacterial toxins are ingested with food and water
question
infection
answer
illness in which live bacterial pathogens are ingested and grow in the body
question
organism for Staphylococcal food poisoning
answer
Staphylocaccus aureus
question
symptoms of Staphylococcal food poisoning
answer
vomiting, diarrhea, cramps, nausea
question
info about Staphylococcal food poisoning
answer
salt-tolerant, grows from 8°C-45°C, heat resistant, toxin involved
question
diagnosis for Staphylococcal food poisoning
answer
phage typing and DACK test
question
organism for salmonellosis
answer
Salmonella enterica serotype Enteriditis or Thyphimurium
question
treatment for salmonellosis
answer
antibiotics
question
transmission for salmonellosis
answer
unpasteurized milk or poultry products
question
organism for E. coli diarrhea
answer
Escherichia coli
question
Enterohemorrhagic (EHEC)
answer
O157:H7, transmitted by bagged spinach, less than 100 can establish an infection, acid-tolerant, shiga-toxin
question
organism for cholera
answer
Vibrio cholerae
question
symptoms of cholera
answer
rice water stool
question
treatment for cholera
answer
tetracycline, ORHS (oral rehydration solution, get clean water immediately
question
transmission of cholera
answer
raw oysters and sewage water
question
vaccine of cholera
answer
available using dead V. cholerae
question
organism and name for Chlamydia
answer
Chlamydia trachomatis; Chlamydial urethritis
question
if Chlamydia is left untreated
answer
PID in women, salpingitis, infertility in both sexes
question
info about Chlamydia
answer
NGU and most commonly reported disease in the US
question
organism for Gonorrhea
answer
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
question
symptoms for gonorrhea
answer
50% of women are asymptomatic, cervix is reddened, discharge by pressure in pelvic bone, painful urination
question
Gonorrhea in females
answer
PID, possible sterility, ectopic pregnancy, salpingitis
question
Gonorrhea in males
answer
tingling of the penis, pain when urinating, penile discharge, swollen lymph nodes, painful testicles
question
info about Gonorrhea
answer
"the clap", do not develop immunity
question
treatment for gonorrhea
answer
tetracycline
question
organism for syphilis
answer
Treponema pallidum
question
other names for syphilis
answer
"the great pox" or "the great imitator"
question
primary syphilis
answer
a lesion (chancre) appears where the bacteria entered the body
question
secondary syphilis
answer
involves a fever, rash and swollen lymph nodes, jaundice and live is affected
question
chronic latent stage for syphilis
answer
3-30 years
question
tertiary syphilis
answer
formation of gummas
question
confirmation tests for syphilis
answer
fluorescent antibody test and hemaggluntination test
question
treatment for syphilis
answer
Penicillin
question
virus
answer
small, obligate intracellular parasite with no capacity for individual metabolism; must rely on cell for reproduction
question
enveloped virus
answer
a virus surrounded by an envelope
question
what is the virus' envelope made out of?
answer
nuclear plasmid membrane for extra protection
question
naked virus
answer
composed of only a nucleocapsid
question
nucleocapsid
answer
the capsid with its enclosed genome
question
prions
answer
infectious proteins, aren't viruses but act like it
question
capsid
answer
the protein coat that is made up of capsomeres
question
neuraminidase
answer
helps release virions from the host cell after replication and assembly
question
hemagglutinin
answer
helps the virions attach and penetrate host cells
question
genetic recombination
answer
can lead to new viruses
question
protooncogene
answer
protein synthesis gene is off = normal cell growth
question
what does the body fight viruses through?
answer
interferons, neutralization with antibodies, phagocytosis, interactions with T lymphocytes
question
neuraminidase inhibitors
answer
back an enzyme in the spike of influenza viruses; prevents the release of new virions into the body
question
protease inhibitors
answer
impede the HIV protease that trims viral proteins in capsid construction
question
reverse transcriptase inhibitors
answer
prevents the synthesis of DNA in retroviruses
question
viral subunits
answer
protein molecules produced by genetic engineering
question
attenuated viruses
answer
viruses that continue to replicate in the body cells, but at an extremely low rate
question
inactivated virus
answer
treated with a physical agent
question
provirus
answer
encodes a repressor protein that prevents activation of the viral genes necessary for replication
question
reverse transcriptase
answer
used by retroviruses to transcribe their RNA to DNA; doing things backwards
question
temperate phages
answer
do not lyse the host; insert their DNA into the bacterial chromosome as a prophage
question
replication of bacteriophage
answer
attachment, penetration, biosynthesis, maturation, release
question
bacteriophage
answer
viruses that only attack bacteria invading the cell
question
retroviruses
answer
replicated through a DNA intermediate
question
negative strand RNA viruses
answer
viruses that have RNA strands that would be complementary to mRNA
question
positive stand RNA viruses
answer
viruses that have mRNA genomes
question
host range
answer
refers to what organisms the virus can infect like animal or plant
question
virion
answer
a completely assembled, infectious virus outside its host cell
question
West Nile fever
answer
transmission: mosquitos; symptoms: fever, body aches, rash, nausea, vomiting; no vaccine or treatment
question
Polio virus
answer
infects the gray matter of the spinal cord and brain; transmission: contaminated water and food, sometimes through the bloodstream to the meninges; vaccine: trivalent vaccines
question
rabies
answer
highest mortality rate of any human disease; transmission: skin wound and bit; symptoms: ever, headache, increased muscle tension, become alert and aggressive, death from respiratory paralysis; hydrophobia (get angry/mad at the sound of water), tingling burning and cold at the bite site
question
furious rabies
answer
wide eyes, drooling, unprovoked attacks
question
dumb rabies
answer
docile and lethargic
question
coxsackie virus
answer
causes gastroenteritis and brief bouts of diarrhea
question
norovirus
answer
transmission: fecal-oral route, direct person-to-person contact, fomites; problem on cruise ships
question
rotavirus
answer
transmission: fecal-oral route; invades teh small intestine causing diarrhea; 2 vaccines available
question
lassa fever belongs to what family?
answer
Arenaviridae
question
lassa fever info
answer
transmission: aerosol or direct contact with rodent excreta or contaminated food; infection leads to severe fever, exhaustion and patchy blood-filled hemorrhagic lesions of the throat
question
Marburg hemorrhagic fever (MHF)
answer
transmission: unclear (bodily fluids); early symptoms: non-specific with fever and a maculopapular rash; late symptoms: jaundice, weight loss, delirium, pancreatitis, hemorrhaging
question
Marburg belongs to what family?
answer
Filoviridae
question
Ebola belongs to what family?
answer
Filioviridae
question
Ebola hemorrhagic fever (EHF)
answer
transmission: contact with infected person's blood or secretions or fomites; symptoms: fever, headache, joint/muscle aches, sore throat, weakness; causes massive internal bleeding because it damages the epithelial cells
question
rift valley fever
answer
transmission: mosquitos; symptoms: similar to dengue fever; recovery in 2-7 days
question
Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome
answer
"sin nombre"; host: deer mouse; transmission: when humans inhale aerosolized urine or feces; symptoms: headaches, dizziness, difficulty breathing, low BP
question
dengue fever
answer
"break bone fever"; transmission: high fever and prostration - sharp pains and sensations like bones are breaking
question
Flavivirusises
answer
arthropodbourne
question
yellow fever belongs to what family?
answer
Flavivirusises
question
yellow fever
answer
transmission: mosquitos - Stegomyia aegypti; symptoms: headache, fever, jaundice, muscle pain, nausea, uncontrollable hiccups, black vomit, delirium, hemorrhaging
question
Hepatitis A virus (HAV) belongs to what family?
answer
Picornaviridae
question
Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
answer
transmission: food or water contaminated by the feces of an infected individual - raw shellfish; symptoms: enlargement of liver, jaundice, anorexia, vomiting, nausea, low fever; 3 vaccines available and no treatment
question
Hepatitis B (HBV) belongs to what family?
answer
Hepadnaviridae
question
Hepatitis B (HBV)
answer
transmission: direct or indirect contact with bodily fluid; symptoms: fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, jaundice, abdominal pain; treatment: several vaccines and drugs
question
Hepatitis C (HCV) belongs to what family?
answer
Flaviviridae
question
Hepatitis C (HCV)
answer
transmission: blood; most causes are asymptomatic and chronic; primary reason for liver transplants in the US
question
Hepatitis D (HDV)
answer
caused by HBV and HDV; can only damage liver when HBV is present
question
Hepatitis E (HEV) belongs to what family?
answer
Caliciviridae
question
Hepatitis E (HEV)
answer
an opportunistic, emergent disease; prevention: good hygiene
question
cytomegalovirus
answer
mono-like symptoms; accelerates the progressions of HIV and AIDS; no vaccine or treatment
question
infectious mononucleosis
answer
Epstein-Barr virus; transmission: saliva; symptoms: sore throat, swollen glands, fever, lasts 3-4 weeks; no vaccines or drugs; monospot test
question
Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV) belongs to what family?
answer
retroviridae
question
Human Immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
answer
attacks T- cells (allow opportunistic infections to take the body); transmission: blood and sex; HIV doesn't kill you, secondary infections do; blood test: ELISA; treatment: Azidothymidine - first drug used, HAART cocktails
question
Molluscum Contagiousum
answer
viral disease that causes mildly-contagious wart-like skin lesions; transmission: sexual contact
question
smallpox
answer
poxvirus; pink-red macules appear on face and trunk, then become papules and flui-filled vesicles-the vesicles become pustules and break apart; no vaccinations after 1972; most dangerous bioterrorism weapon
question
Human Papillomovirus
answer
transmission: an affected person or fomites; can get genital warts (condylomata) - transmission: sexual contact - vaccine: Gardasil
question
fifth disease (Erhtema infectiousum) belongs to what family?
answer
parvoviridae
question
rubella belongs to what family?
answer
togaviridae
question
rubella
answer
transmission: respiratory droplets or contact; symptoms: occasional fever and pale-pink maculopapular rash
question
fifth disease (Erhtema infectiousum)
answer
"slap cheek"; parvovirus B 19; transmission: respiratory droplets; symptoms: fiery red rash on cheeks, ears and trunk
question
mumps
answer
infectious parotitis; characterized by enlarged jaw tissues caused by swollen salivary glands; transmission: respiratory droplets or fomites; vaccine: MMR
question
measles belong to what family?
answer
paramyxoviridae
question
measles
answer
rubeola; transmission: respiratory droplets; symptoms: hacking cough, sneezing, nasal discharge, eye redness, sensitivity to light, high fever CHARACTERISTIC RED RASH; Koplik spots: red patched with white grain-like center appears on gum line; vaccine: MMR
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roseola infantum belongs to what family?
answer
human herpesvirus 6
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chickenpox
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Varicella-Zoster virus; transmission: skin contact or respiratory droplets; symptoms:begin in respiratory tract and signs of fever, malaise, headache and a red, itchy rash that spreads across the body and turns into fluid-filled vesicles; treatment: antivirals (Acyclovir); vaccine: varivax
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shingles
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Varicella-Zoster virus; adult form of chickenpox; can cause facial paralysis and "icepick" pains; vaccine: for people over 60; VZV cells can be reactivated and travel to the body trunk and cause blisters and patches of red
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human herpes simplex 1
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cold sores; no cute; abreva helps
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human herpes simplex 2
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genital herpes; symptoms: itching and throbbing in the genital area followed by blisters; no cure but antivirals (Acyclovir) can shorten outbreaks
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Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) belongs to what family?
answer
Coronaviridae
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Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
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transmission: close person-to-person contact (cough); symptoms: fever higher than 38°C, headache, overall discomfort, after 2-7 days: a dry cough, can progress into severe respiratory illness and pneumonia
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parainfluenza
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human parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3; infections are milder than influenza
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paramyxovirus
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infections that affect the lower respiratory tract
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respiratory syncytial (RS) disease
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caused by the respiratory syncytial virus; flu-like symptoms; treatment: ribavirin
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adenovirus belongs to what family?
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adenoviridae
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adenovirus
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produce symptoms similar to a cold; transmission: respiratory droplets
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rhinovirus belongs to what family?
answer
picornaviridae
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rhinovirus
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transmission: airborne respiratory droplets or fomites; produce inflammation in the upper respiratory tract; symptoms: sore throat, runny or stuffy nose, mild aches and pains, coughs, earaches
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influenza belongs to what family?
answer
orthomyxoviridae
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influenza
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transmission: respiratory droplets; symptoms: severe cough, sore throat, nasal congestion, sneezing, tight chest, sudden chills, body aches; vaccine: uses most common strain that was last shown; Tamiflu: an antiviral drugs that targets N spikes blocking release of new virions
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influenza A
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strikes every year and causes most epidemics
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influenza B
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strikes every year but is less common than type A; only circulates in human
question
influenza C
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causes a mild respiratory illness but not epidemics
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tumors
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a clone of abnormal cells, not necessarily cancerous
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cancer and it's cells
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an uncontrolled growth and spread of cells; undergo cell division more frequently, stick together less firmly, less differentiated, fail to exhibit contact inhibition
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serological testing
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detecting specific antibodies in patient's serum which indicates an immune response to recent infection
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STAGE 1 of HIV
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flu-like illness within a month or 2 of exposure
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STAGE 2 of HIV
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free of major disease; can last 6-8 years
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STAGE 3 of HIV
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immune system loses fight; get AIDS if T cell count is below 200/mm3
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roseola infantum
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symptoms: high fever and red body rash; transmission: respiratory secretions or saliva
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lab diagnosis of viral disease
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fluorescent antibody and skin testing
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benign tumor:
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when, normally the body surrounds a tumor with a capsule of connective tissue
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malignant tumor:
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when the tumor breaks free from the capsule and spreads throughout the body
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Energy & Gram Neg.
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What do we need to determine in microbes by doing metabolic activity assays
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Phenol red
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What is the indicator in both the phenol red broth test and the urease test
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pH
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What does the indicator phenol red indicate in the phenol red broth test
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Gas
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What is the Durham tube used to collect during the phenol red broth test
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Acid fermentation
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What process are we testing for in the phenol red broth test
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Yellow
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What color(s) is a positive phenol red broth test (acidic)
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Bright pink
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What color is a negative phenol red broth test (basic)
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Orange
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What color(s) is a negative phenol red broth test (neutral)
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Enterobacteria
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What medical application (microbe) is the phenol red broth, phenylalanine deaminase, gelatin hydrolysis, and SIM tests used to detect that is gram negative (most common)
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Hydrogen peroxide
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What do you mix bacteria with for a catalase assay
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Enzyme catalase
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What are we testing for by doing the catalase assay
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Bubbles
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What is a positive result of the catalase assay
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No bubbles
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What is a negative result of the catalase test
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Staph
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What common microb will it indicate if you get a positive catalase assay
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Strep
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What common microb will it indicate if you get a negative catalase assay
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Ferric chloride
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What is the reagent used in the Phenylalanine Deaminease Test
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Green
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What color(s) does ferric chloride turn in the Phenylalanine Deaminease Test
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Amino acids
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We are looking for ________________ in Phenylalanine Deaminease test and the SIM test to see if there is energy
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Protein
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Amino acids are the same thing as
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Phenylalanine Deaminease Test
answer
Yellow is the indication that ____________ test is negative
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Negative
answer
The Phenylalanine Deaminease Test medical application most commonly detect Enterobacteria which is gram
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Iodine
answer
What is the reagent in the starch hydrolysis test
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H2O
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The starch hydrolysis test is to see if there is an addition of _______ to breakdown startch so it can be used as energy
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Glowing
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A positive starch hydrolysis test shows and clear zone surrounding the growth and is
question
Dark brown
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A negative starch hydrolysis test is the color(s) of
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E. coli
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What comon gram negative bacteria does the starch hydrolysis test for
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Nitrogen
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The urease test is to determine the waste bacteria of __________ that we excrete in urine
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Ammonia
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We are testing for what is a byproduct of urease in the urease test
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Red or pink
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A positive result in the urease test would be the color(s)
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Basic
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Is ammonia (a byproduct of urease) basic or acidic
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No color
answer
A negative result color(s) of the urease test, SIM:indole & SIM: Hydrogen sulfide production test is
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Proteus
answer
The medical application that the urease test is for is usually for urinary tract pathogens from the gram negative genus
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Gelatin
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The gelatin hydrolysis assay is used to detect for the breakdown of
question
Gelatinase
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The only way the breakdown of gelatin happens in the gelatin hydrolysis assay is if it contains the enzyme
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Liquid
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The results of a positive gelatin hydrolysis test is
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Solid
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The results of a negative gelatin hydrolysis test is
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Kovac's
answer
What is the reagent used in the SIM: indole production
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Tryptophan
answer
What does Kovac's reagent break down in the SIM iodole test
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Pink
answer
A positive SIM:indole test wouls be the color(s)
question
Sulfer
answer
The SIM: Hydrogen sulfide production test is the breakdown of amino acids using
question
Black
answer
A positive SIM: Hydrogen sulfide production test is the color(s)
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Metal ions
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What turns black in the positive result of the SIM: Hydrogen sulfide production test
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Cloudy
answer
A positive SIM: Motility test would be
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Growth
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A negative SIM: Motility test would only have _______ at the stab line
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Carbohydrates
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Acid fermentation is the same as the ability to ferment ____________ in the phenol red broth test
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6.8 - 7.4
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Neutral pH
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< 6.8
answer
Acidic pH
question
> 7.4
answer
Alkaline pH
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color change & gas formed
answer
What are the signs of fermentation
question
Yes
answer
For fermentation, can you have acid without gas
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No
answer
For fermentation, can you have gas without acid
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Water and gas
answer
The two things the catalase test converts hydrogen peroxide into is
question
O2
answer
What is being released in the catalase test that forms bubbles
question
Polysaccharide
answer
What type of molecule is starch
question
Bacillus cereus
answer
What comon gram positive bacteria does the starch hydrolysis test for
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Ammonia & CO2
answer
The molecule urea can be metabolized by c ertain bacteria into two things
question
Urease
answer
Ammonia & CO2 contain the enzyme ______
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For energy
answer
Why would a bacterium want to hydrolyze gelatin.
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Candy
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What product do we usally find the enzyme gelatinase in
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Deamination
answer
The ability of a bacteria to remove the amine group from the amino acid phenylalanine is called
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