question
Microeconomics and macroeconomics use different types of analysis.
answer
True
question
Which of the following represents positive economics?
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If policy A is followed, then outcome B results.
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People are forced to make choices because of:
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unlimited wants and limited resources.
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The sun is an example of:
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a natural resource.
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A chain saw is an example of which of the following factors of production?
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Capital.
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Economics, according to its definition, studies how people:
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make choices in the face of scarcity.
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Ceteris paribus means:
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all other things remain constant.
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Economists believe that scarcity forces everyone to:
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make choices.
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"Ceteris paribus" is a Latin expression that essentially means "holding everything else constant."
answer
True
question
When economists say goods are scarce, they mean:
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the desire for goods and services exceeds our ability to produce them with the limited resources available
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Which of the following is an example of a positive economic statement?
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The economy's real output increased at about 3 percent last year and the unemployment rate decreased.
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Economists use models to:
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abstract from the complexities of the world, understand economic behavior: explain and help predict human behavior.
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The Ceteris paribus assumption is important when building economic models.
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True
question
The statement "Cutting government spending is the best way to boost consumer confidence" is an example of normative economics.
answer
True
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An economic model is defined as:
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a simplified representation of the way in which facts are related.
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In Exhibit 1A-2, as X increases along the horizontal axis, corresponding to points C-D on the line, the Y values increase. The relationship between the X and Y variables is:
answer
direct.
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An upward-sloping straight line exhibits a direct relationship between two variables:
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True
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A downward-sloping straight line exhibits a direct relationship between two variables.
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False
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Direct relationships are illustrated using upward-sloping lines and curves:
answer
True
question
Which of the following would not cause a shift in the supply curve for a good?
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An increase in demand for that good.
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The law of demand says that the lower the price charged for a good, ceteris paribus, the:
answer
greater the quantity demanded per period of time.
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The curve that shows the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity that consumers are willing to purchase at each price is the:
answer
supply curve.
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Assume that eggnog and cookies are complements. If the price of eggnog goes up, what happens to the demand for cookies?
answer
Demand for cookies decreases.
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Compared to higher-income families, low-income families would demand proportionately more of which of the following kinds of goods?
answer
Inferior goods.
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Assume Congress passes a new tax of $2.00 per pack on cigarettes. The effect on the supply curve is a(n):
answer
Decrease in supply.
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Complementary goods are goods:
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that are consumed jointly.
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Assume that consumers expect the price of gasoline to rise sharply in the future.
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Which of the graphs in Exhibit 3-3 depicts this effect? Graph A.
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Which of the following is most likely to increase the supply of corn?
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Farmers that grow soybeans can also grow corn, and the price of soybeans drops by 75 percent.
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A curve that depicts the relationship between price and quantity demanded is the:
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demand curve.
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A rightward shift of a demand curve is called a(n):
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increase in demand.
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Assume Qs represents the quantity supplied at a given price and Qd represents the quantity demanded at the same given price. Which of the following market conditions produce a downward movement of the price?
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Qs = 1,000, Qd = 750.
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Substitute goods are goods that are:
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competing for consumer spending.
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When the price of a good is above its equilibrium price, a:
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surplus puts downward pressure on the price.
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The price of a good will fall if:
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there is an excess supply of the good.
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If movies are an inferior good, movie attendance will rise when consumer incomes fall.
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True
question
According to the law of demand, if the price of a good increases, other things being equal, the quantity demanded will decrease:
answer
True
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Which of the following is true about the market equilibrium?
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As the price increases, the quantity demanded decreases and the quantity supplied increases.
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In Exhibit 3-9, if the market price is $50:
answer
a surplus of 27 units would result.
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The equilibrium price is best defined as the price at which:
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quantity demanded is equal to quantity supplied.
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The excess supply created when governments impose a price floor is:
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shrinking as the floor rises.
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Which of the following is a property of a public good?
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Users collectively consume benefits.
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Collusive action among producers creates higher prices for consumers because it:
answer
allows producers to artificially restrict their supply.
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A technological breakthrough lowers the cost of manufacturing DVDs. As a result, the market changes to a new equilibrium because of a(n):
answer
rightward shift in the supply curve for DVDs.
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In Exhibit 4-10, the equilibrium price is:
answer
$2.
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If the government imposes a price ceiling below the market equilibrium price, then:
answer
c and d.
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Suppose a new law requires all piercing studios to pass tougher licensing tests and to begin using more costly sterilization methods. Other things constant, this law would cause:
answer
a decrease in the supply of piercings and a higher price for piercings.
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Which of the following is an example of market failure?
answer
Public goods, Externalities, Lack of Competition
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If the demand for a good decreased, what would be the effect on the equilibrium price and quantity?
answer
Price would decrease, and quantity would decrease.
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Which of the graphs in Exhibit 4-4 represents a decrease in the price of a factor of production?
answer
Graph C.
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If each of us relied exclusively on the market to determine what to buy, we would probably end up with few, if any:
answer
streetlights.
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Which of the following would be a private cost to a cigarette manufacturer?
answer
Price of leaf tobacco.
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Externalities get their name from the fact that they are:
answer
outside of decisions.
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In Exhibit 4-8, a movement from A to C is best described as a(n):
answer
decrease in the quantity supplied and a decrease in demand.
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In Exhibit 4-9 the equilibrium price and quantity in the market are:
answer
$1.00, 200.
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In Exhibit 4-1, suppose that a reduction in the price of an important input used to produce the good causes an increase in quantity supplied of 150 units at every price level. Assuming that demand does not change, the new equilibrium price will be: $2.00.
answer
...
question
A side effect of a price floor set above the equilibrium price is:
answer
an excess supply of the good is created.
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An increase in demand and a decrease in supply cause which of the following?
answer
Equilibrium price rises.
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A black market may arise when government imposes a price ceiling.
answer
True
question
Negative externalities result in unfair, excessively high prices.
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False
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Price elasticity of demand refers to the:
answer
responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in the price of a good.
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If an increase in the price of a product from $1 to $2 per unit leads to a decrease in the quantity demanded from 100 to 80 units, then demand is:
answer
inelastic.
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Along the elastic range of a demand curve, a decrease in price causes:
answer
an increase in total revenue.
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As shown in Exhibit 5-8, the price elasticity of supply for good X between points E and X is:
answer
5/11 = 0.45.
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If Sam, the Pizza Man, lowers the price of his pizzas from $6 to $5 and finds that sales increase from 400 to 600 pizzas per week, then the demand for Sam's pizzas in this range is:
answer
price elastic.
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If the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good is greater than the percentage change in price, price elasticity of demand is:
answer
elastic.
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If the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good is less than the percentage change in price, price elasticity of demand is:
answer
inelastic.
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Elasticity has which special meaning for economists?
answer
A ratio of percentage changes.
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The more inelastic the demand for a product, the more the actual burden of a tax on the product will:
answer
fall on buyers.
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Suppose the Good Food supermarket increases the price of a pound of bananas from $.75 to $1.25 and finds that the quantity of bananas it sells per month drops from 1,500 to 1,000. The price elasticity of demand coefficient for bananas in this price range is:
answer
0.80.
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Elasticity is a measure of:
answer
relative responsiveness.
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The price elastic portion of the linear demand curve lies:
answer
above the point of unit elasticity.
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According to Exhibit 5-7, the demand for concert tickets is:
answer
inelastic.
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If a good is inferior in an economic sense:
answer
the income elasticity of demand is negative.
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If a tripling of price triples the quantity of a good supplied, the price elasticity of supply for this good is
answer
1.
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A product would be more demand price elastic:
answer
the less the essential nature of the good.
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Suppose the quantity demanded of steak is 200 million pounds per year when the price is $6 per pound and 400 million pounds per year when the price is $2 per pound. The price elasticity of demand for steak over this range is:
answer
inelastic.
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A public transit company finds that when it reduces the price of a bus ticket, total revenues remain the same. One can conclude from this that:
answer
the firm is operating in a range of the demand curve that is unit elastic.
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When the government imposes a tax, sellers raise their price by the full amount of the tax.
answer
False
question
For an inferior good, the income elasticity of demand is negative.
answer
True
question
If a consumer is indifferent between 5 units of A and 8 units of B, then the consumer would:
answer
prefer 6 units of A and 8 units of B.
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Refer to Exhibit 6-8. Diminishing returns set in after which telephone call?
answer
The first.
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John loves to travel. He would never turn down the opportunity to go on a trip. This means that, for John:
answer
the total utility of travel always increases.
question
Refer to Exhibit 6-5. Each dessert is priced at $1. If you had $10 to spend on desserts, which of the following combinations of goods would you buy?
answer
4 units of brownies, 4 units of ice cream, and 2 units of pie.
question
Assume the price of good X increases. As a result, your real income decreases and you decrease the quantity of good X purchased each month. This is an example of the:
answer
income effect.
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The statement "as more of a good is consumed, the utility a person derives from each additional unit diminishes" is known as the:
answer
law of diminishing marginal utility.
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If total utility is falling, marginal utility is:
answer
negative
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A utility-maximizing consumer is currently spending all of his/her income on two products, A and B. The MU of the last unit of A consumed is 50, the price of A is $25, and the price of B is $10. The MU of the last unit of B consumed is:
answer
20.
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The ability of a good to satisfy a want refers to its:
answer
utility.
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Typically, total utility derived decreases as more of a good is consumed.
answer
False
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If good A has a marginal utility of 30 and a price of $5, and good B has a marginal utility of 10 and a price of $2, then:
answer
good A is a better buy than good B.
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Suppose that an individual consumes just two goods: Big Macs and milkshakes. In order to reach consumer equilibrium, the individual must arrange the consumption of Big Macs and milkshakes so that the:
answer
ratio of marginal utility to price is the same for both goods for the last dollar spent on each good.
question
If total utility increases from 10 to 15 for the second unit of a good consumed, the marginal utility of the second unit is 5.
answer
True
question
Consumer equilibrium requires that the marginal utility per dollar spent be the same for all goods.
answer
True
question
The utility of a good measures its usefulness.
answer
False
question
Total utility is maximized in the consumption of two goods by equating the:
answer
ratios of marginal utility to the price of both goods for the last dollar spent on each good.
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The law of diminishing marginal utility indicates that the marginal utility curve is:
answer
downward sloping.
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Suppose a consumer is spending his or her entire budget. In order to obtain the most satisfaction from his or her purchases, all goods should:
answer
provide the same marginal utility per dollar.
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A rational consumer should not consume more of a good when:
answer
total utility is decreasing.
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Marginal utility is defined as:
answer
the extra satisfaction a person derives from consuming an additional unit of a good.
question
A young chef is considering opening his own sushi bar. To do so, he would have to quit his current job, which pays $20,000 a year, and take over a store building that he owns and currently rents to his brother for $6,000 a year. His expenses at the sushi bar would be $50,000 for food and $2,000 for gas and electricity. What are his explicit costs?
answer
$52,000.
question
When the cost curves have U-shapes, at the point where marginal cost equals average total cost:
answer
marginal cost is rising, average total cost is at its minimum.
question
In the long run, all costs are fixed costs.
answer
False
question
Which of the following is true if the total variable cost curve is rising?
answer
Marginal cost is increasing.
question
If the firm represented in Exhibit 7-15 is operating with a plant whose size corresponds to short-run average total cost curve A, the level of output that would minimize its short-run average total cost is:
answer
500 units per week.
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By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 7-8, the variable cost of producing 4 pizzas is shown to be equal to:
answer
$40.
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When the curve that envelops the series of possible short-run average total cost curves is horizontal, this means that there are:
answer
constant returns to scale.
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Constant returns to scale exist over the range of output for which the long-run average cost is:
answer
none of these.
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Explicit costs would include:
answer
rent.
question
Since the 1980s, Wal-Mart stores have appeared in almost every community in America. Wal-Mart buys their goods in large quantities and therefore at cheaper prices. Wal-Mart also locates its stores where land prices are low, usually outside of the community business district. Many customers shop at Wal-Mart because of low prices and free parking. Local retailers, like the neighborhood drug store, often go out of business because they lose customers. This story demonstrates that:
answer
there are economies of scale in retail sales.
question
Which of the following is true at the point where diminishing returns set in?
answer
Marginal product is at a maximum and marginal cost at a minimum.
question
Sam quits his job as an airline pilot and opens his own pilot training school. He was earning $40,000 as a pilot. He withdraws $10,000 from his savings where he was earning 6 percent interest and uses the money in his new business. He uses a building he owns as a hanger and could rent it out for $5,000 per year. He rents a computer for $1,200, buys office supplies for $500, rents an airplane for $6,000, pays $1,300 for fuel and maintenance, and hires one worker for $30,000. Sam's total revenue from pilot training classes this year equaled $90,400. Sam's explicit costs this year equals:
answer
$39,000.
question
In Exhibit 7-13, ATC is shown by the graph labeled:
answer
V.
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In the long run, total fixed cost will:
answer
not exist by definition.
question
By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 7-8, the marginal cost of the fourth pizza is shown to be equal to:
answer
$17.
question
If fixed cost is $200,000 and variable cost is $30 per unit over the relevant range of output, when 10,000 units are produced, the average total cost will be:
answer
$50.
question
If average fixed costs equal $60 and average total costs equal $120 when output is 100, the total variable cost must be:
answer
$6,000.
question
In Exhibit 7-7, by filling in the blanks it can be determined that the fixed costs are:
answer
200.
question
...
answer
...
question
If the units of variable input in a production process are 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5, and the corresponding total outputs are 30, 34, 37, 39, and 40, respectively. The marginal product of the fourth unit is:
answer
2.
question
The law of diminishing returns causes a firm's short-run marginal cost curve to be s-shaped.
answer
False
question
Has a horizontal individual demand curve
answer
If a firm has no ability to select the price of its product, it:
question
False
answer
The long-run supply curve for a competitive industry always has a positive slope.
question
it is not earning the maximum potential profit
answer
If a business firm is not operating at the point where MR = MC, then:
question
Average variable cost curve
answer
A perfectly competitive firm's supply curve follows the upward-sloping segment of its marginal cost curve above the:
question
Short-run average variable cost
answer
In long-run equilibrium, which of the following is not equal to price for a perfectly competitive firm?
question
Wheat farming
answer
Which of the following best illustrates perfect competition?
question
Free entry to reduce short-run profits, or free exit to reduce short-run losses
answer
Which of the following is a key characteristic of the long-run competitive equilibrium that distinguishes it from the short-run competitive equilibrium?
question
Minimum short-run average total cost
answer
In long-run equilibrium for a perfectly competitive firm, price equals which of the following?
question
$10
answer
If a perfectly competitive firm sells 50 units of output at a market price of $10 per unit, its marginal revenue is:
question
p5
answer
As shown by the five points in Exhibit 8-13, the firm's total economic profit is maximized when the price is:
question
During which the firm can vary its plant size
answer
The long run is a planning period:
question
400 units per week
answer
As shown in Exhibit 8-18, the perfectly competitive firm is in long-run equilibrium at an output of:
question
marginal cost cruve
answer
As market price increases in the short run, a profit-maximizing firm in a perfectly competitive market will expand output along its:
question
MR = MC
answer
The point of maximum profit for a business firm is where:
question
Extra profit is enough to cover all of the variable cost on your next two trips
answer
Suppose that you have returned from your fishing expedition with 20,000 fish. The market price is $3 per fish. Your average fixed cost was $1 and your total variable cost was $5,000. If the price jumps to $3.50 before you sell your first fish, how much extra profit, if any, do you earn?
question
Neither a nor b
answer
In a perfectly competitive industry, assume there is a permanent increase in demand for a product. The process of transition to a new long-run equilibrium will include:
question
is at its profit-maximizing point
answer
In Exhibit 8-7, if this firm is currently producing 20 units of output, this firm:
question
The same as the firm's demand curve
answer
In the perfectly competitive market, individual firms exert no effect on the market price. Therefore, the firm's marginal revenue curve is:
question
$2.00 per week
answer
As shown in Exhibit 8-3, the price at which the firm earns zero economic profit in the short-run is:
question
$5
answer
If a perfectly competitive firm sells 10 units of output at a market price of $5 per unit, its marginal revenue per unit is:
question
Increase price and decrease output
answer
If marginal costs increase, a monopolist will:
question
impossible or difficult to resell
answer
For a monopolist to practice price discrimination, one necessary condition is that the product offered for sale must be: