question
Anabaena
answer
prokaryotic
photoautotrophic
forms colonies
cyanobacteria
photoautotrophic
forms colonies
cyanobacteria
question
Amoeba
answer
unicellular eukaryotic
heterotrophic
protozoa with pseudopod
heterotrophic
protozoa with pseudopod
question
Paramecium
answer
unicellular eukaryotic
heterotrophic
protozoa with cilia
heterotrophic
protozoa with cilia
question
Penicillium
answer
eukaryotic
saprophytic
multicellular with hyphae
saprophytic
multicellular with hyphae
question
Staphylococcus aureus
answer
prokaryotic, heterotrophic, nonmotile
Gram (+), purple, cocci clusters
known as Coagulase Positive Staphylococci
produces a variety of toxins, food poisoning, impetigo, wound infections
serious nosocomial pathogen
resistant to many antibiotics
MRSA
Thermal Resistance: >20 min
Catalase: (+)
Oxidase: N/A
TSA Plate: yellow pigment, insoluble
BAP: Beta-Hemolysis, clear halo
MAC: no growth of colonies
O/F Purple: (+/+) Fermentative, both yellow in closed and open tubes
virulence factors: coagulase enzyme
Gram (+), purple, cocci clusters
known as Coagulase Positive Staphylococci
produces a variety of toxins, food poisoning, impetigo, wound infections
serious nosocomial pathogen
resistant to many antibiotics
MRSA
Thermal Resistance: >20 min
Catalase: (+)
Oxidase: N/A
TSA Plate: yellow pigment, insoluble
BAP: Beta-Hemolysis, clear halo
MAC: no growth of colonies
O/F Purple: (+/+) Fermentative, both yellow in closed and open tubes
virulence factors: coagulase enzyme
question
Trypanosoma
answer
eukaryotic
heterotrophic
protozoa with flagella
heterotrophic
protozoa with flagella
question
Volvox
answer
eukaryotic in colonies, multicellular
photoautotrophic
algae with flagella
photoautotrophic
algae with flagella
question
Bacillus subtilis
answer
prokaryotic
Gram (+) purple rods
Thermal resistance: >20 min, least sensitive
Catalase: (+)
BAP: Beta-Hemolytic, tan halo
endospore former, hardy to UV irradiation
ubiquitous and contaminated frequently
Thioglycollate Broth Test: aerobe, milky growth on top of tube
Gram (+) purple rods
Thermal resistance: >20 min, least sensitive
Catalase: (+)
BAP: Beta-Hemolytic, tan halo
endospore former, hardy to UV irradiation
ubiquitous and contaminated frequently
Thioglycollate Broth Test: aerobe, milky growth on top of tube
question
Lactobacillus plantarum
answer
prokaryotic, heterotrophic
Gram (+) purple, bacilli chains
Gram (+) purple, bacilli chains
question
Rhodospirillum rubrum
answer
prokaryotic
AUTO OR HETERO???
mobile- flagella
spiral-shaped bacteria
AUTO OR HETERO???
mobile- flagella
spiral-shaped bacteria
question
Candida albicans
answer
eukaryotic
saprophytic
unicellular or filamentous
found throughout the body in normal microflora: oral, GI, nasopharynx, opportunistic fungi, biofilm formation, budded to hyphal cell, fourth most common cause in nosocomial infections
creates germ tubes to reproduce strain, look like a tadpole
TJ: large, creamy opaque colonies
saprophytic
unicellular or filamentous
found throughout the body in normal microflora: oral, GI, nasopharynx, opportunistic fungi, biofilm formation, budded to hyphal cell, fourth most common cause in nosocomial infections
creates germ tubes to reproduce strain, look like a tadpole
TJ: large, creamy opaque colonies
question
Euglena
answer
unicellular eukaryotic
photoautotrophic
protozoa/algae with flagella
photoautotrophic
protozoa/algae with flagella
question
Escherichia coli
answer
Gram (-) pink bacilli in singles'
member of Enterobacteriaceae
in normal fecal flora, common reason for UTI in females
Thioglycollate Broth Test: facultative anaerobe, flocculated cloudy mixture
UV Irradiation: killed within >60 s.
Catalase: N/A
Oxidase: (-) no dot
TSA Plate: colorless with colorless medium, N/A solubility
BAP: Non-Hemolytic, no halo
MAC: Strong Lactose Fermenter, purple-pink colonies and purple medium
O/F Leifson: (+/+) Fermenter, bright yellow open and closed tube
O/F Purple: N/A
member of Enterobacteriaceae
in normal fecal flora, common reason for UTI in females
Thioglycollate Broth Test: facultative anaerobe, flocculated cloudy mixture
UV Irradiation: killed within >60 s.
Catalase: N/A
Oxidase: (-) no dot
TSA Plate: colorless with colorless medium, N/A solubility
BAP: Non-Hemolytic, no halo
MAC: Strong Lactose Fermenter, purple-pink colonies and purple medium
O/F Leifson: (+/+) Fermenter, bright yellow open and closed tube
O/F Purple: N/A
question
Klebsiella pneumoniae
answer
Gram (-) pink coccus singles
in a TSA slant filiform growth, no color
Thermal Resistance: >10 min
in a TSA slant filiform growth, no color
Thermal Resistance: >10 min
question
Bacillus cereus
answer
Gram (+) purple bacilli chains
in TSA plate, circular colony, entire, flat, opaque, dull and butyrous
color: bright yellow and turns agar yellow, thus WATER SOLUBLE
in TSA plate, circular colony, entire, flat, opaque, dull and butyrous
color: bright yellow and turns agar yellow, thus WATER SOLUBLE
question
Serratia marcescens
answer
Gram (-) pink rods
in a TSB broth- no surface growth and diffused in general, no color
in TSA deep- complete growth on stab but no color
in TSA plate- confluent growth, no color change
in MAC- red colonies, beige medium
Thermal Resistance: >10 min.
in a TSB broth- no surface growth and diffused in general, no color
in TSA deep- complete growth on stab but no color
in TSA plate- confluent growth, no color change
in MAC- red colonies, beige medium
Thermal Resistance: >10 min.
question
Micrococcus luteus
answer
Gram (+) cocci
Thioglycollate Broth Test: microaerophile, growth on top in a darker pink ring
Catalase: (+)
Oxidase: N/A
TSA Plate: yellow pigment, insoluble
BAP: no halo, non-hemolytic
MAC: no growth of colonies
O/F Purple: (-/-) Inert, purple in closed and open tube
O/F Leifson: N/A
Thioglycollate Broth Test: microaerophile, growth on top in a darker pink ring
Catalase: (+)
Oxidase: N/A
TSA Plate: yellow pigment, insoluble
BAP: no halo, non-hemolytic
MAC: no growth of colonies
O/F Purple: (-/-) Inert, purple in closed and open tube
O/F Leifson: N/A
question
Enterococcus faecalis (Streptococcus faecalis)
answer
Gram (+) cocci- clusters
Found in animals and humans normal fecal flora
opportunistic and nosocomial pathogen
VRE: Vancomysin Resistant Enterococci
indication of contaminated water via feces
Catalase (-)
Oxidative: N/A
TSA Plate: colorless with colorless medium
BAP: gamma, no halo
MAC: no growth of colonies
O/F Purple: (+/+) Fermentative open and closed tubes are both light yellow
O/F Leifson: N/A
can cause UTIs and endocarditis
virulence factors: hemolysins,
Found in animals and humans normal fecal flora
opportunistic and nosocomial pathogen
VRE: Vancomysin Resistant Enterococci
indication of contaminated water via feces
Catalase (-)
Oxidative: N/A
TSA Plate: colorless with colorless medium
BAP: gamma, no halo
MAC: no growth of colonies
O/F Purple: (+/+) Fermentative open and closed tubes are both light yellow
O/F Leifson: N/A
can cause UTIs and endocarditis
virulence factors: hemolysins,
question
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
answer
Gram (-) pink bacillus rod
produces pyocyanin (blue puss), water soluble
has grape-like smell
ubiquitous and loves water
associated with wounds, burns, and pneumonia
Catalase: N/A
Oxidase: (+) purple dot, VERY STRONG
TSA Plate: pyocyanin pigment, ocean blue, water soluble
BAP: Beta-Hemolysis, tan halo
MAC: Non-Lactose Fermenter but pigment producer, light purple/grey/beige colonies and green/gray medium
O/F Leifson: (+/-) Oxidative, yellow open tube and green closed tube
O/F Purple: N/A
produces pyocyanin (blue puss), water soluble
has grape-like smell
ubiquitous and loves water
associated with wounds, burns, and pneumonia
Catalase: N/A
Oxidase: (+) purple dot, VERY STRONG
TSA Plate: pyocyanin pigment, ocean blue, water soluble
BAP: Beta-Hemolysis, tan halo
MAC: Non-Lactose Fermenter but pigment producer, light purple/grey/beige colonies and green/gray medium
O/F Leifson: (+/-) Oxidative, yellow open tube and green closed tube
O/F Purple: N/A
question
Bacteriodes fragilis
answer
Gram (-) pink rods, bacillus
anaerobe
hardy microbe, found in fecal flora and most common in feces
Thioglycollate Broth Test: anaerobe, growth on bottom of tube
anaerobe
hardy microbe, found in fecal flora and most common in feces
Thioglycollate Broth Test: anaerobe, growth on bottom of tube
question
Staphylococcus pneumoniae
answer
Gram (+) purple cocci chains
Catalase: (-)
"pneumococcus"
BAP: Alpha-Hemolytic, green halo for partial lysis of rbc via hemolysin
neonatal sepsis, community acquired pneumonia
in normal throat flora
E-Test: MIC = 0.006-0.008 using antimicrobial ceftriaxome
has a capsule- increases virulence
Catalase: (-)
"pneumococcus"
BAP: Alpha-Hemolytic, green halo for partial lysis of rbc via hemolysin
neonatal sepsis, community acquired pneumonia
in normal throat flora
E-Test: MIC = 0.006-0.008 using antimicrobial ceftriaxome
has a capsule- increases virulence
question
autotrophic
answer
obtain carbon from inorganic material, usually carbon dioxide, self-feeders, can be prokaryotic or eukaryotic
question
phototrophic
answer
type of autotroph, use light as an energy source
ex: Anabaena, Volvox, Euglena
ex: Anabaena, Volvox, Euglena
question
heterotrophic
answer
obtain carbon from organic material, such as CHO, fats, proteins, other organisms, can be prokaryotic or eukaryotic
ex: Amoeba, Paramecium, Lactobacillus, Typanosoma, Staphylococcus
ex: Amoeba, Paramecium, Lactobacillus, Typanosoma, Staphylococcus
question
saprophytic
answer
organisms get their carbon compounds by living off dead, decaying organic matter
ex: most fungi
ex: most fungi
question
heterocyst
answer
nitrogen fixation cells, synthesize their own CHOs, found in barren places, type of cyanobacteria
question
flagellate
answer
bacteria posses flagella, can be motile or non-motile
multiple flagella on a protozoa- flagellates
ex: Trypanosoma, Euglena, Volvox
multiple flagella on a protozoa- flagellates
ex: Trypanosoma, Euglena, Volvox
question
ciliate
answer
only in eukaryotes, hair like structures, shorter than flagella, cover whole surface of microbe
ex: Paramecium
ex: Paramecium
question
cytoplasmic streaming
answer
direction of cytoplasmic flow through a protrusion in the cell membrane
question
pseudopod
answer
false foot, protrusion in the cell membrane that is formed by the movement of cytoplasm in the cell
ex: Amoeba
ex: Amoeba
question
yeast
answer
unicellular, smaller, larger than bacteria, reproduces by budding
question
bacillus
answer
rod-shaped bacteria
question
coccus
answer
spherical-shaped bacteria
question
spirillum
answer
spiral-shaped bacteria
question
hypha/hyphae
answer
arise from spores, send out long filamentous structures which will elongate and branch out to create mycelium
question
mold
answer
multicellular, more filamentous, larger than bacteria, hypha
question
Compare and contrast eukaryotic and prokaryotic organisms
answer
Eukaryotic: more complex internal organization with membrane-bound organelles, well-defined nucleus surrounded by a true membrane, no peptidoglycan in cell wall if wall is present, fungi, algae, plants, animals, protozoans
Prokaryotic: simpler, DNA is found but no true membrane-bound nucleus exists, no membrane-bound organelles, complex metabolic pathways, smaller and usually circular, peptidoglycan cell wall, bacteria and cyanobacteria
Prokaryotic: simpler, DNA is found but no true membrane-bound nucleus exists, no membrane-bound organelles, complex metabolic pathways, smaller and usually circular, peptidoglycan cell wall, bacteria and cyanobacteria
question
How do you focus on bacteria using 10X and 100X objectives?
answer
Start a the 10X objective and focus image in the center of the ocular lens. Rotate to 4X lens and add oil to the slide. Rotate 100X over slide and use fine focus knob to adjust and sharpen the image and increase light. Then, clean off the oil from the 100X objective and anywhere else on the microscope.
question
Diopter
answer
ring on the left ocular eyepiece that adjusts the focus of the left eye so differences in vision can be corrected
question
Parfocal
answer
when focused and centered in a lower objective, the specimen image should be nearly focused in the next higher objective
question
Rheostat
answer
dial that turns the light source on, intensifies the amount of light
question
Resolution
answer
resolving power of a microscope, ability to separate two points which are close together, smaller (d) resolving power, higher resolution
resolution = (wavelength of light) / (NA objective + NA condenser)
resolution = (wavelength of light) / (NA objective + NA condenser)
question
Condenser
answer
two lenses that bend the light entering so it is directed through the hole in the stage and concentrated at the level of the specimen
question
Magnification
answer
result of making an object appear larger than it really is, may not result in a clear image, first at the objective lens, than at the ocular lens level
question
Iris Diaphragm
answer
opens and closes like a shutter to angle the amount of light hitting the slide, closing the shutter increases contrast but decreases resolving power.
question
Oil Immersion
answer
use with 100X objective because not enough light when there is air space between the particular objective and the slide, creates a seal to allow more light into the objective resulting in greater resolution
question
Refractive Index
answer
ability of a medium to bend light rays
question
Total Magnification
answer
= objective power (4X,10X,40X,100X) x ocular power (10X)
question
Numerical Aperture
answer
expression of the light gathering capacity of the lens
(NA) = n sin (theta)
(NA) = n sin (theta)
question
Working Distance
answer
the distance between the objective lens and the specimen
shortens as the power of the objective increases
shortens as the power of the objective increases
question
How can you calculate the resolution in microns?
answer
Calculate resolution = (wavelength of light)/(NA condenser + NA objective)
question
What's the difference between magnification and resolution?
answer
Magnification is making the image larger while resolution is making the image sharper/clearer
question
What are the 6 sections of a microscope?
answer
1. Ocular
2. Objective
3. Specimen Stage
4. Substage Condenser and Light Source
5. Focus Control
6. Base
2. Objective
3. Specimen Stage
4. Substage Condenser and Light Source
5. Focus Control
6. Base
question
How should one handle a microscope?
answer
Always use two hands, clean the lenses with Kimwipes, position 4X over stage when done, fold cord and tuck between stage and base, move condenser all the way down
question
Why is 100X immersion objective the best objective to use on the bright field microscope when viewing stained slides of bacteria?
answer
100X immersion is best to use because it needs a higher amount of light and the oil immersion allows more light to be refracted on the specimen to see the image.
question
How can you adjust light intensity of the microscope?
answer
Adjust via rheostat, condenser or iris diaphragm
question
What are some common problems with viewing slides under a microscope and how can it be fixed?
answer
Make sure specimen slide is not upside down, is centered in the field of vision, increase brightness or refocus by changing the substage condenser height so its about 2 mm below slide, add oil if blurry or air bubbles.
question
Region 1: Ocular
answer
has ocular eyepieces that magnify the specimen 10X, the diopter ring can be adjusted to focus the left eye so the differences in vision can be corrected
question
Region 2: Objective Lens
answer
4X (red), 10X (yellow), 40X (blue), 100X (white), the working distance shortens as the power of the lens increases and surface area decreases
question
Region 3: Specimen Stage
answer
flat level stage and slide holder, use the X and Y knobs below the stage to move the slide
question
Region 4: Substage Condenser and Light Source
answer
position of the condenser and control the amount of light going to the slide via the rheostat, the iris diaphragm, and condenser.
question
Region 5: Focus Control
answer
two co-axial focus control knobs that move the mechanical stage up and down, coarse focus knob and fine focus knob
question
Region 6: Base
answer
supports the base of the microscope and contains the light source
question
Ocular Micrometer
answer
a scale used to measure microorganisms with a microscope, small and large ocular units
question
Correction Factors
answer
4X = 25
10X = 10
40X = 2.5
100X = 1
10X = 10
40X = 2.5
100X = 1
question
How do you calculate the size of a microorganism?
answer
= # small ocular units x correction factor
question
How do you prepare a wet mount?
answer
Mix culture if a bacteria, use Pasteur pipette to transfer culture to slide with 1 drop, put a cover slip on the liquid drop slowly as to not cause air bubbles and press on cover slide afterward.
Use minimal lighting
Use minimal lighting
question
What are some common problems with wet mount preparation? How can these be solved?
answer
If you can't see anything, use less light by lowering condenser or closing iris down
If you see round, bright objects, move away from air bubble and look into a different spot
If you see round, bright objects, move away from air bubble and look into a different spot
question
Smear Preparation
answer
thin layer of cells immobilized onto a slide, barely visible to the naked eye, aseptically transfer cells to a slide using a sterile inoculating loop or a sterile Pasteur pipette
question
Fixation
answer
the immobilization of an organism and its structures by applying heat (physical method) or chemical agent, kills the cells quickly by denaturing their enzymes which stops metabolic activity that can alter staining and cause cells to adhere to the slide more readily
question
What is one goal of a good smear preparation?
answer
One goal is to get an even, thin distribution of cells
question
Why should a bacterial smear air dried and fixed?
answer
Minimizes distortion of cellular shape and spatial arrangement
question
Why should a bacterial smear be one cell thick?
answer
Too many cells can prevent observation of the spatial arrangement and lead to decolorization
question
What are two types of fixation?
answer
Two types are heat fixation and chemical agents
Heat: don't overcook bacteria, lose cellular integrity and characteristic morphology
FIX
Heat: don't overcook bacteria, lose cellular integrity and characteristic morphology
FIX
question
Broth Suspension of Smear Preparation
answer
1. wax circle and pass through flame to melt wax onto slide
2. sterilize loop
3. gently shake the tube to suspend microorganisms
4. pick up a loopful (2-3) of broth and put into wax circle and spread over circle or use a pipette to add 2-3 drops of the broth
5.fixation with heat on hot plate
2. sterilize loop
3. gently shake the tube to suspend microorganisms
4. pick up a loopful (2-3) of broth and put into wax circle and spread over circle or use a pipette to add 2-3 drops of the broth
5.fixation with heat on hot plate
question
Slant or Agar Plate Smear Preparation
answer
1. wax circle and pass through flame to melt wax onto slide
2. put 1-2 drops of water into circle
3. sterilize loop
4. pick up a small amount of bacteria via needle and mix into drop of water *make sure it's not cloudy
5. fixation with heat on hot plate
2. put 1-2 drops of water into circle
3. sterilize loop
4. pick up a small amount of bacteria via needle and mix into drop of water *make sure it's not cloudy
5. fixation with heat on hot plate
question
What are some common problems with smear preparation? How can these be solved?
answer
If cell shape is distorted- shorten heat fixing time, allow loop to cool longer
If too thick and many cells layered on top of one another- suspend a smaller amount of sample into the water or slide
If too thick and many cells layered on top of one another- suspend a smaller amount of sample into the water or slide
question
Differential Stain
answer
stains designed to separate bacteria into groups to facilitate the identification of them, use more than one dye and are used to distinguish among various groups of bacteria
question
Gram Positive
answer
cells retain primary crystal violet dye when complexed with iodine, appear purple-blue
question
Gram Negative
answer
cells are unable to retain crystal violet-iodine complex when treated with alcohol but will retain counterstain, safranin and appear red
question
Gram Variable
answer
Gram positive cells that sometimes stain Gram negative
question
Peptidoglycan
answer
high molecular weight repeating carbohydrate polymer linked by amino acid bridges, which forms the structural backbone of the cell wall
more in Gram (+) than Gram (-)
more in Gram (+) than Gram (-)
question
False Gram Positive
answer
When underdecolorization occurs, cells appear purple when they should be pink, didn't use enough alcohol to decolorize sample
question
False Gram Negative
answer
When overdecolorization occurs, cells appear pink when they should be purple, used too much alcohol to decolorize sample
question
Overdecolorize
answer
leads to a false Gram negative, used too much alcohol to decolorize sample
question
Underdecolorize
answer
leads to a false Gram positive, used too little alcohol to decolorize sample
question
Morphology
answer
shape of the bacteria
ex: bacillus, coccus, spirillum
ex: bacillus, coccus, spirillum
question
Primary Stain
answer
crystal violet, enters both Gram (+) and (-) to stain deep purple
question
Mordant
answer
Gram's iodine, added after primary stain, makes the staining solution more intense, creates crystal violet-iodine complex
question
Decolorization
answer
after mordant Iodine is added, treatment of stained cells with alcohol or acetone
removes lipids in Gram (-) cell walls, CV-I complex leaks from walls and cells become colorless
shrinks the Gram (+) walls trapping the CV-I complex so they still appear purple
removes lipids in Gram (-) cell walls, CV-I complex leaks from walls and cells become colorless
shrinks the Gram (+) walls trapping the CV-I complex so they still appear purple
question
Counterstain
answer
Safranin, added after decolorizer alcohol, colorless Gram (-) cell walls take up Safranin and appear pink/red
question
What is the difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria?
answer
Gram positive cells have more peptidoglycan and retain their CV-I complex while Gram negative cells have less peptidoglycan, leak their CV-I complex and retain counterstain, Safranin
question
What is the difference between simple and differential staining?
answer
Simple stain is a basic, one dye added to color cells while differential stains, like a Gram stain, differentiate between various types of bacteria in a sample.
question
Why can Gram (+) bacteria sometimes stain Gram (-) and why Gram (-) bacteria sometimes stain Gram (+) ?
answer
The use of the decolorizer, alcohol can sometimes overdecolorize, leading to a false Gram (-) or underdecolorize, leading to a false Gram (+)
question
What are the four basic cellular characteristics of a bacterium?
answer
1. Gram stain reaction ((+) or (-))
2. Size (in microns)
3. Morphology (shape)
4. Spatial arrangement (singular v. colony)
2. Size (in microns)
3. Morphology (shape)
4. Spatial arrangement (singular v. colony)
question
Why is the Gram stain a mordant dependent staining technique?
answer
???????
question
Cocci/Coccus
answer
spherical- shaped bacteria
create diplococci, chains, tetrads, clusters
create diplococci, chains, tetrads, clusters
question
Bacilli/Bacillus
answer
rod-shaped bacteria
create singles, pairs, chains
create singles, pairs, chains
question
Spirilla/Spirillum
answer
spiral-shaped bacteria
form spirilla (more rigid, helical) spirochetes (more flexible)
form spirilla (more rigid, helical) spirochetes (more flexible)
question
Pleomorphic
answer
variety of shaped bacteria that don't fit in a specific category
question
What are the steps of a Gram stain procedure?
answer
1. Place smear-side up and add crystal violet for one minute.
2. Wash off with water and add Gram's Iodine and let sit for one minute.
3. Wash off with water and add 95% alcohol and use 1-2 drops per smear until the purple color no longer comes off in the alcohol.
4. Wash off with water and add safranin for two minutes.
5. Wash off with water and carefully blot slide dry.
2. Wash off with water and add Gram's Iodine and let sit for one minute.
3. Wash off with water and add 95% alcohol and use 1-2 drops per smear until the purple color no longer comes off in the alcohol.
4. Wash off with water and add safranin for two minutes.
5. Wash off with water and carefully blot slide dry.
question
What are the colors of each type of cell at each stage of the Gram stain procedure?
answer
Primary Step:
Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = purple
Mordant:
Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = purple
Decolorizer:
Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = colorless
Counterstain:
Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = red/pink/brown
Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = purple
Mordant:
Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = purple
Decolorizer:
Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = colorless
Counterstain:
Gram (+) = purple
Gram (-) = red/pink/brown
question
What are some problems that may occur during the Gram stain procedure? How can these be solved?
answer
Make sure there is enough oil on slide at 100X, make sure to blot slides carefully
If crystals present, make sure to wash off one stain completely before adding the next
If Gram (+) appears Gram (-), overdecolorization occurred. Make sure to use less alcohol during decolorization.
If Gram (-) appears Gram (+), underdecolorization occurred. Make sure to use more alcohol during decolorization.
If you cannot see single cells, remake smear to be one cell thick.
If crystals present, make sure to wash off one stain completely before adding the next
If Gram (+) appears Gram (-), overdecolorization occurred. Make sure to use less alcohol during decolorization.
If Gram (-) appears Gram (+), underdecolorization occurred. Make sure to use more alcohol during decolorization.
If you cannot see single cells, remake smear to be one cell thick.
question
Ubiquitous
answer
microorganisms are found in all natural environments
question
Contamination
answer
presence of a microbe in undesirable areas
question
Aseptic Techniques
answer
the precautionary measures used to avoid contamination of cultures
question
Aerosol Contamination
answer
When a hot loop is plunged into a liquid media because the microbe can be spread through aerosol formation through medium splatter.
question
Dilution/Isolation Streaking
answer
dilution of bacteria by systematically streaking them over the agar surface in a petri dish to obtain isolated cells which will subsequently grow into piles of cells or isolated colonies.
useful to study colonial morphology, pigmentation, hemolysis.
useful to study colonial morphology, pigmentation, hemolysis.
question
Colony
answer
piles of isolated cells
question
Sterile
answer
without viable microbial cells present
question
Confluent Growth
answer
growth over the entire surface of the streaked area
question
Pure Culture
answer
if the agar surface grows microorganisms which are all the same, genetically.
question
Fomite
answer
dust particles, inanimate objects that can be combined with microbes and spread via air currents
question
Confluency Plating Technique
answer
used when a smooth lawn of growth over the entire plate of the agar is desired.
question
Why is it important to use aseptic transfer and dilution/isolation streaking techniques?
answer
It's important to use aseptic techniques to avoid contamination of laboratory environment and microorganisms.
Dilution/isolation streaking techniques are important because you can study morphology, pigmentation, hemolysis and other characteristics of a single colony because it is isolated within a pure culture.
Dilution/isolation streaking techniques are important because you can study morphology, pigmentation, hemolysis and other characteristics of a single colony because it is isolated within a pure culture.
question
How can you get isolated colonies via dilution/isolation streaking techniques? Why is it necessary to get isolated colonies?
answer
You get isolated colonies via dilution of the sample. A sterile loop of swab is used to obtain a microbial culture. It is streaked lightly. Sterilize the loop between streaks and fewer microbe colonies are deposited between the three zones.
question
Why is aerosol contamination hazardous for everyone in the room?
answer
Aerosol contamination is hazardous for everyone in the room because the microbes are now formed and spread through the air and can contaminate the laboratory.
question
Why do we flame the loop?
answer
We flame the loop to sterilize/inoculate the loop as to not spread contamination to the plate or into different zones.
question
Why do we invert inoculated plates?
answer
We invert inoculated plates so condensation water drops do not drip down onto the surface of the plate and contaminate/dilute the microbes on the plate.
question
Why do we leave the lids on petri dishes at all times except when streaking or collecting a sample?
answer
We leave the lids of petri dishes on at all times except when streaking or collecting a sample because you do not want to contaminate a sample with microbes from the air.
question
Why do we not place a contaminated loop on the bench?
answer
We do not place a contaminated loop on the bench because we don't want to contaminate the bench and spread the microbe elsewhere.
question
Why do we not place a hot loop in liquid culture?
answer
We don't place a hot loop in a liquid culture so as not to kill the microbes or contaminate the laboratory via aerosol formation.
question
Why do we not place a sterile loop on the bench during streaking?
answer
We do not place a sterile loop on the bench during streaking because once placed on the bench, the sterile loop now becomes contaminated and must be resterilized.
question
Where are colony characteristics observed and where are cellular characteristics observed?
answer
Colony characteristics are observed on confluency plates while cellular characteristics are observed on dilution/isolation streaked plates, usually in Zone 3.
question
What does contamination look like on an agar plate?
answer
Contamination looks like anything that isn't your perceived results. Before plating, the agar surface should be smooth, moist, and free of anything growing in it. Keep an eye out for contamination (colonies growing), dehydration (cracked agar), or excessive moisture (droplets on surface of agar)
question
What are some common problems with streaking? How can these problems be fixed?
answer
If there is no growth on the plate, allow loop to cool longer.
If there is no isolated colonies in zone 3, but there are in zone 2, increase number of zone to zone crossovers, make sure zone 1 is confluent or enlarge the zone 1.
If zone 3 shows confluent growth, make sure to sterilize loop between zones, use edge of loop to streak zones 2 and 3, make a smaller zone 1, decrease number of zone to zone crossovers.
If zone 1 has empty spaces, make sure you're using the flat side of the loop and increase number of streaks.
If there is no isolated colonies in zone 3, but there are in zone 2, increase number of zone to zone crossovers, make sure zone 1 is confluent or enlarge the zone 1.
If zone 3 shows confluent growth, make sure to sterilize loop between zones, use edge of loop to streak zones 2 and 3, make a smaller zone 1, decrease number of zone to zone crossovers.
If zone 1 has empty spaces, make sure you're using the flat side of the loop and increase number of streaks.
question
How do you collect a sample from a broth?
answer
Gently shake tube and obtain a sample of liquid near the surface of the broth via loop or needle.
question
How do you collect a sample from a slant?
answer
You obtain a small amount of growth on a sterilized loop.
question
How do you collect a sample from a plate?
answer
You collect a sample from the outside edge of a well isolated colony.
question
How do you inoculate a liquid medium?
answer
You inoculate a liquid medium by touching sample to the surface of the broth, put on the cap and shake tube gently.
question
How do you inoculate a slant medium?
answer
You inoculate a slant medium by starting at the base of the slant and zig zagging up the surface of the agar in a continuous motion.
question
How do you inoculate a deep medium?
answer
You inoculate a deep medium by stabbing the sample with a needle into the deep medium until you are about 2 mm from the bottom. Pull needle out in the same path.
question
How do you inoculate a plate?
answer
Using either the dilution/isolation streaking method or the confluency plate streak.
question
What are the given temperatures of incubation for certain climates?
answer
Human Body - 37°C
Room - 22°C
Fridge- 4°C
Hot Springs- >55°C
Arctic- <-20°C
Room - 22°C
Fridge- 4°C
Hot Springs- >55°C
Arctic- <-20°C
question
Explain how to perform a streak plate technique.
answer
1. Label Zone 1 on back of petri dish with necessary info.
2. Sterilize loop and obtain sample
3. Streak in small zone 1 for confluency, making sure to get corners and edges using the flat side of the loop. Start in the middle of zone 1 on the edge.
4. Sterilize the loop and cross over twice from zone 1 into zone 2 using the edge of the loop and making the streaks a little bit further apart.
5. Sterilize the loop and cross over once from zone 2 to zone 3 using the edge of the loop and making the streaks even further apart.
2. Sterilize loop and obtain sample
3. Streak in small zone 1 for confluency, making sure to get corners and edges using the flat side of the loop. Start in the middle of zone 1 on the edge.
4. Sterilize the loop and cross over twice from zone 1 into zone 2 using the edge of the loop and making the streaks a little bit further apart.
5. Sterilize the loop and cross over once from zone 2 to zone 3 using the edge of the loop and making the streaks even further apart.
question
Explain how to perform a streak plate for confluency.
answer
To streak for confluency, don't leave any gaps as you cover the whole plate in one direction with loop or sterile swab. Then turn the plate 90°, and cover the whole plate again in the one direction. Then turn the plate another 90° and cover the whole plate in one direction. Then get the edges of the plate before tossing the swab or sterilizing the loop.
question
Explain how to perform a spread plate technique.
answer
A spread plate technique begins with putting the sample in the very middle of the plate. Sterilize the glass hockey stick with dirty ethanol and flame, then clean ethanol and flame. Once the spreader is cool, place the rod in the center of the agar plate and turn the turn table to move the sample around the plate, making sure to get the edges of the plate with the spreader as well. Resterilize hockey stick when completed.
question
Surface Growth in Broth Tube Media
answer
no growth
ring growth
pellicle- covering over the top of the test tube
ring growth
pellicle- covering over the top of the test tube
question
General Growth in Broth Tube Media
answer
diffused- cannot see it well
flocculent- specks of contents in broth
flocculent- specks of contents in broth
question
Deep Growth in Tube Media
answer
surface growth- on top of stab line on surface
partial growth- some growth on surface and into stab line
complete growth on stab- growth on surface and all the way down the stab line
partial growth- some growth on surface and into stab line
complete growth on stab- growth on surface and all the way down the stab line
question
Slant Growth in Tube Media
answer
filiform- smooth even growth
beaded- many "beads" in growth pattern
rhizoid- feathery appearance
beaded- many "beads" in growth pattern
rhizoid- feathery appearance
question
Colony Morphology on Plates- Size
answer
punctuate - <0.5 mm
question
Colony Morphology on Plate- Shape
answer
circular
irregular-like a splash (Nickelodeon symbol)
rhizoid- feathery
filamentous- many branches
elliptical- oval shaped colony
irregular-like a splash (Nickelodeon symbol)
rhizoid- feathery
filamentous- many branches
elliptical- oval shaped colony
question
Colony Morphology on Plate- Edge
answer
entire- smooth edge
undulate- somewhat bumpy, uneven edge
lobate- like a splash (Nickelodeon symbol)
erose- fuzzy edge
undulate- somewhat bumpy, uneven edge
lobate- like a splash (Nickelodeon symbol)
erose- fuzzy edge
question
Colony Morphology on Plate- Surface Elevation
answer
flat- like a pancake
raised- raised on sides but flat in the middle
convex- like the coconut Patrick the Starfish lives under
pulvinate- more elongated, thinner convex elevation
umbonate- like a nipple
raised- raised on sides but flat in the middle
convex- like the coconut Patrick the Starfish lives under
pulvinate- more elongated, thinner convex elevation
umbonate- like a nipple
question
Light Passing Through a Colony
answer
opalescent- opal, translucent and opaque
opaque- no light will pass through
translucent- light to pass through but no clear visibility
transparent- light passes through with clear visibility
opaque- no light will pass through
translucent- light to pass through but no clear visibility
transparent- light passes through with clear visibility
question
Reflection of Light in a Colony
answer
dull or glossy
question
Consistency of a Colony
answer
brittle- dry and crumbly
butyrous- butter like
membraneous- growth thin, coherent like membrane
viscid- growth that is wet looking
butyrous- butter like
membraneous- growth thin, coherent like membrane
viscid- growth that is wet looking
question
Solubility of Colony
answer
water soluble- color the solid medium
water insoluble- will not color the solid medium
**if microbe doesn't produce a pigment, solubility is N/A
water insoluble- will not color the solid medium
**if microbe doesn't produce a pigment, solubility is N/A
question
Shape of Fungal Growth
answer
round
oval
rhizoid- fluffy
filamentous- branched looking
oval
rhizoid- fluffy
filamentous- branched looking
question
Edge of Fungal Growth
answer
entire- smooth edge
undulate- wavy uneven edge
erose- jagged sharp edge
feathery- filamentous
undulate- wavy uneven edge
erose- jagged sharp edge
feathery- filamentous
question
Surface Elevation of Fungal Growth
answer
flat- like a pancake
convex- like a half circle
umbonate- like a nipple
raised- raised on edge but flat in the middle
convex- like a half circle
umbonate- like a nipple
raised- raised on edge but flat in the middle
question
Texture of Fungal Growth
answer
filamentous- like hairs or fibers
folded- like gathered material
furrowed- deep grooves and wrinkles
glaborous- smooth surface
rugate- folded and wrinkled like stomach lining
wrinkled- like brain tissue
folded- like gathered material
furrowed- deep grooves and wrinkles
glaborous- smooth surface
rugate- folded and wrinkled like stomach lining
wrinkled- like brain tissue
question
Consistency of Fungal Growth
answer
cottony-like cotton fibers
downy- like fine, soft feathers
fluffy- soft, loose light airy mass
granular- grainy appearance
powdery- crumbly looking
velvety- smooth like silk
waxy- smooth soft pliable surface like dried wax
downy- like fine, soft feathers
fluffy- soft, loose light airy mass
granular- grainy appearance
powdery- crumbly looking
velvety- smooth like silk
waxy- smooth soft pliable surface like dried wax
question
Pigmentation of Fungal Colony
answer
check on surface and reverse (through the agar) side, two different colors can be obtained
question
Whats the difference between fungal and bacterial characterization?
answer
Aerial hyphae
question
Enzymes
answer
proteins that catalyze biochemical reactions in pathways, make reactions proceed quickly and efficiently (catalysis)
question
Anabolic
answer
building cellular macromolecules from nutrients
question
Catabolic
answer
breaking down macromolecules for energy or conversion, most reactions are catabolic
question
Biochemical Test Media
answer
designed to pose nutritional or metabolic questions to a pure culture under study.
question
Substrate Utilization
answer
Part of biochemical test media, one of two ways: What kind of organic compounds can the microbe use as energy source, supplying a large amount a organic compounds and determining if they were utilized or not.
question
Product Accumulation
answer
What end-products or by-products does the microbe produce as the result of enzymatic modification, excretion of waste, detected by pH indicators
question
pH Indicators
answer
usually dyes that colorimetrically determine what wastes or organic acids have accumulated in the media.
question
General Nutritional Media
answer
used to grow a wide variety of microbes, variety of nutrients to support many bacteria with different nutritional requirements, commonly used for isolating microbes from a mixed culture and maintain pure bacterial cultures.
question
Selective Media
answer
permit the growth of certain bacteria while preventing the growth of other bacteria
ex: high salt conc., dyes, inhibitory chemicals, antibiotics
ex: high salt conc., dyes, inhibitory chemicals, antibiotics
question
Differential Media
answer
allow a distinction between two species or among groups of microbes by determining the presence of absence of specific enzymatic pathways
ex: chemical or cellular indicator
ex: chemical or cellular indicator
question
What is the difference between general, selective, and differential media?
answer
General Nutritional Media sponsors almost all growth and nutritional needs on a plate. Selective media only permits the growth of some bacteria. Differential media allow distinction between two species with specific enzymatic pathways.
question
Trypticase Soy Agar (TSA) Plate
answer
How Does This Work?: peptones used for various nutritional requirements for many microbes
Original Color of Medium: beige/tan, translucent, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: used for phenotypic testing and pigment production
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
TSA slant- growth patterns on slant media
TSA deep- oxygen requirements of microbes
TSA plates- isolation, usually dilution/isolation streak but can streak for confluency for endospore production
Original Color of Medium: beige/tan, translucent, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: used for phenotypic testing and pigment production
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
TSA slant- growth patterns on slant media
TSA deep- oxygen requirements of microbes
TSA plates- isolation, usually dilution/isolation streak but can streak for confluency for endospore production
question
Sheep Blood Agar Plate (BAP)
answer
How Does This Work?: identify with hemolytic action (hemolysins) on red blood cells in medium, dilution/isolation streak and stab media twice, incubated in 37°C CO2
Original Color of Medium: opaque red
Microbes Selected For and Against: for nutritionally fastidious organisms, identification of streptococci
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: highly differential medium, sheep's red blood cells
pH indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
for streptococcal microbe:
A- Hemolysis- green halo around colony, partial lysis of rbc
B-Hemolysis- tan halo around colony, complete lysis of rbc
Gamma- Hemolysis- no discoloration of medium, not hemolysins active against rbc
A'-Hemolysis- double zone, some rbc are intact while others are completely lysed
for all other microbes:
B- Hemolysis- clear, tan halo around colony, complete lysis of cell by hemolysin
Non-Hemolytic- no tan or green halo is seen, no hemolysins active against rbc
Original Color of Medium: opaque red
Microbes Selected For and Against: for nutritionally fastidious organisms, identification of streptococci
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: highly differential medium, sheep's red blood cells
pH indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
for streptococcal microbe:
A- Hemolysis- green halo around colony, partial lysis of rbc
B-Hemolysis- tan halo around colony, complete lysis of rbc
Gamma- Hemolysis- no discoloration of medium, not hemolysins active against rbc
A'-Hemolysis- double zone, some rbc are intact while others are completely lysed
for all other microbes:
B- Hemolysis- clear, tan halo around colony, complete lysis of cell by hemolysin
Non-Hemolytic- no tan or green halo is seen, no hemolysins active against rbc
question
MacConkey Medium (MAC)
answer
How Does This Work?: allow hardy Gram (-) to grow and to determine if they are lactose metabolizers (fermenters) or not (non-fermenters), dilution/isolation streak incubate at 37°C O2
Original Color of Medium: light purple
Microbes Selected For and Against: aid in the isolation of Salmonella and Shigella species from fecal flora
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): crystal violet and bile salts, inhibit growth of Gram (+) and fastidious Gram (-) cells, allow hardy Gram (-) to grow
Differential Agents: lactose, separate microbes who can metabolize lactose with acidic end products (fermenters) or cannot use lactose, alkaline end-products (non-fermenters)
pH Indicator: neutral red, fermenters = red, non-fermenters = beige
Interpretation of Results:
strong lactose fermenter- colonies and surrounding medium are purple-pink/red, contain permease and beta-galactosidase
weak lactose fermenter- colonies are pink with dark red center, bullseye from bottom of petri dish, but pearly pink from above, limited permease but has beta-galactosidase
non-lactose fermenter- beige colonies and medium, may be grey-purple
non-lactose fermenter but pigment producer:
red colonies, beige medium = Serratia marcescens
light purple/grey/beige colonies, green/gray medium = Pseudomonas aeruginosas
Original Color of Medium: light purple
Microbes Selected For and Against: aid in the isolation of Salmonella and Shigella species from fecal flora
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): crystal violet and bile salts, inhibit growth of Gram (+) and fastidious Gram (-) cells, allow hardy Gram (-) to grow
Differential Agents: lactose, separate microbes who can metabolize lactose with acidic end products (fermenters) or cannot use lactose, alkaline end-products (non-fermenters)
pH Indicator: neutral red, fermenters = red, non-fermenters = beige
Interpretation of Results:
strong lactose fermenter- colonies and surrounding medium are purple-pink/red, contain permease and beta-galactosidase
weak lactose fermenter- colonies are pink with dark red center, bullseye from bottom of petri dish, but pearly pink from above, limited permease but has beta-galactosidase
non-lactose fermenter- beige colonies and medium, may be grey-purple
non-lactose fermenter but pigment producer:
red colonies, beige medium = Serratia marcescens
light purple/grey/beige colonies, green/gray medium = Pseudomonas aeruginosas
question
Leifson's Oxidative/Fermentative Test (O/F Leifson)
answer
How Does This Work?: determines microbe's mode of utilization of a CHO, oxidation of glucose, low conc. of peptone, one base tube (no glucose), two glucose tubes, stab, one has mineral oil (closed tube), no mineral oil (open), 37°C O2
Original Color of Medium: blue-green
Microbes Selected For and Against: used with Gram (-) rods only
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: glucose
pH Indicator: bromothymol blue, turns canary yellow under acidic conditions, neutral it's green, alkaline it's blue
Interpretation of Results:
Oxidative (+/-) = yellow on top of open, green in closed
Fermentative (+/+) = yellow on open, yellow on closed
Inert (-/-) = green on open, green on closed
Original Color of Medium: blue-green
Microbes Selected For and Against: used with Gram (-) rods only
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: glucose
pH Indicator: bromothymol blue, turns canary yellow under acidic conditions, neutral it's green, alkaline it's blue
Interpretation of Results:
Oxidative (+/-) = yellow on top of open, green in closed
Fermentative (+/+) = yellow on open, yellow on closed
Inert (-/-) = green on open, green on closed
question
Leifson's Oxidative/Fermentative Test (O/F Purple)
answer
How Does This Work?: test Gram (+) microbes, purple medium more nutrients for Gram (+), use peptones if not using glucose
Original Color of Medium: Purple
Microbes Selected For and Against: used for Gram (+) microbes only
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: glucose
pH Indicator: bromocresol purple
Interpretation of Results:
Oxidative (+/-) = light yellow on open, purple on closed
Fermentative (+/+)= light yellow on open, light yellow on closed
Inert (-/-) = purple on open, purple on closed
Original Color of Medium: Purple
Microbes Selected For and Against: used for Gram (+) microbes only
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: glucose
pH Indicator: bromocresol purple
Interpretation of Results:
Oxidative (+/-) = light yellow on open, purple on closed
Fermentative (+/+)= light yellow on open, light yellow on closed
Inert (-/-) = purple on open, purple on closed
question
Catalase Test
answer
How Does This Work?: fresh sample to a slide, add 3% Hydrogen Peroxide and look for bubble formation, looks for catalase enzyme that turns h202 into water and oxygen
Microbes Selected For and Against: used for Gram (+) microbes, distinguishing between streptococci and staphylococci
Interpretation of Results: if bubbles form = catalase enzyme is present, no bubbles = no catalase enzyme
Microbes Selected For and Against: used for Gram (+) microbes, distinguishing between streptococci and staphylococci
Interpretation of Results: if bubbles form = catalase enzyme is present, no bubbles = no catalase enzyme
question
Oxidase Test
answer
How Does This Work?: used to determine presence cytochrome oxidase, present in most aerobic bacteria
Original Color of Medium: Dry-Slide oxidation
Microbes Selected For and Against: Gram (-) microbes
Interpretation of Results:
Oxidase (+) = turns purple within 20 seconds
Oxidase (-) = sample on card remains the same color, turns purple after 20 seconds
Original Color of Medium: Dry-Slide oxidation
Microbes Selected For and Against: Gram (-) microbes
Interpretation of Results:
Oxidase (+) = turns purple within 20 seconds
Oxidase (-) = sample on card remains the same color, turns purple after 20 seconds
question
Why do we need to perform biochemical tests to identify a bacteria in addition to staining reactions and colony characteristics?
answer
We need to perform biochemical test because staining and characteristics are not sufficient to identify bacteria because there are simply too few characteristics to identify more than 13,000 types of classified bacteria thus far.
question
Why is a pure culture used to inoculate biochemical media?
answer
So as to not have contamination within results of media testing.
question
If a bacteria if Gram (+) what is the first biochemical test used?
answer
Catalase test
question
If bacteria is Gram (-), what is the first biochemical test used?
answer
Oxidase test
question
Voges Proskauer (MRVP) Medium
answer
How Does This Work?: ability to produce a neutral end product from glucose fermentation, detects acetoin formed during metabolization of glucose, add KOH and alpha-naphthol
Original Color of Medium: N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: for butylene-glycol fermenters
Selective Agents (Inhibitors):
Differential Agents:
pH Indicator:
Interpretation of Results:
Positive VP: pink ring forms at top of tube, ferments glucose via butylene glycol pathway, ex: Klebsiella and enterobacter genus
Negative VP: no ring forms, mixed acid fermenter ex: E. coli and Citrobacter species
Original Color of Medium: N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: for butylene-glycol fermenters
Selective Agents (Inhibitors):
Differential Agents:
pH Indicator:
Interpretation of Results:
Positive VP: pink ring forms at top of tube, ferments glucose via butylene glycol pathway, ex: Klebsiella and enterobacter genus
Negative VP: no ring forms, mixed acid fermenter ex: E. coli and Citrobacter species
question
Phototroph
answer
microbes that utilize light as their energy source
question
Chemotroph
answer
microbes that require a chemical energy source
question
Autotroph
answer
microbes that utilize carbon dioxide as their energy source
question
Heterotroph
answer
microbes that utilize organic carbon as their energy source
question
Photoautotroph
answer
microbes that utilize light as their energy source and use carbon dioxide as their carbon source
question
Photoheterotroph
answer
microbes that utilize light as their energy source and use organic carbon as their carbon source
question
Chemoautotroph
answer
microbes that utilize a chemical energy source and atmospheric carbon dioxide as their carbon source
question
Chemoheterotroph
answer
microbes that utilize a chemical energy source and an organic source of carbon
question
Macronutrient
answer
readily supplied nutrients in large quantities, never occur in free elemental form but in compounds, these are C, N, S, K, Mg, Ca, Na, P
question
Micronutrient
answer
required in trace amounts and are frequently supplied in contaminants of major nutrients, from the air or leached from the glass of the medium, these are Mn, Fe, Co, Cu, Zn, Mb
question
What are some common Carbon sources?
answer
CHO, Alcohol, Peptones and proteins, amino acids, carbon dioxide
question
What are some common Nitrogen sources?
answer
inorganic forms of nitrogen like ammonia, and ammonium salts, atmospheric nitrogen, nitrogen in amino acids
question
What are some common Sulfur sources?
answer
sulfates in inorganic salts, organic bound sulfur, sulfur in amino acids, hydrogen sulfide
question
Minimal Defined Medium
answer
medium that has the minimal nutritional requirements for a chemoheterotrophic organism to grow, like E. coli on glucose and inorganic salts
question
Hardy
answer
microbe that can live in a low nutrient environment
question
Fastidious
answer
microbe that needs numerous nutrients to live in the environment, sometimes nutrients must be added for microbe to grow like Streptococci
question
Average
answer
microbe between hardy and fastidious with respect to nutritional requirement.
question
Minimal Temperature
answer
minimum temperature for an organism to grow
question
Maximum Temperature
answer
maximum temperature an organism can grow in
question
Optimal Temperature
answer
temperature that allows for best growth, growth is most rapid because chemical and enzymatic reactions are occurring at their maximum rate
question
Mesophile
answer
microbes that grow between 25-40°C, around body temp which is 37°C
question
Thermophile
answer
microbes that thrive in high temperatures, ~50°C or higher
question
Psychrophile
answer
microbes that thrive in low temperatures, ~15°C or lower
question
Compare and contrast infusion medium, complex medium, and defined medium with examples of each.
answer
Infusion medium is soaked animal or plant materials in water that support the growth of microbes. Unknown amounts and cannot be reproduced. ex: Hay Infusion, BHI
Complex medium contain extracts of natural products like soybeans, beef, tissue, yeast cells, milk, etc. Unknown amounts but can be reproducedUsed for microbes that have multiple or unknown nutrient requirements ex: peptones, tryptones, casein, yeast and beef extract in TSA, PGS
Defined medium contain only chemically identified substances in known amounts and can be reproduced.
ex: GS
Complex medium contain extracts of natural products like soybeans, beef, tissue, yeast cells, milk, etc. Unknown amounts but can be reproducedUsed for microbes that have multiple or unknown nutrient requirements ex: peptones, tryptones, casein, yeast and beef extract in TSA, PGS
Defined medium contain only chemically identified substances in known amounts and can be reproduced.
ex: GS
question
What are the macronutrients?
answer
C, N, O, K, P, Na, S, Mg, Ca
question
What are the micronutrients?
answer
Mn, Fe, Co, Cu, Zn, Mb
question
Compare and contrast the nutritional requirements of chemoautotrophs, photoautotrophs, chemoheterotrophs, and photoheterotrophs.
answer
Chemoautotrophs and photoautotrophs both get their carbon source from carbon dioxide and chemoheterotrophs and photoheterotrophs both get their carbon from organic substances. Chemoheterotrophs and chemoautotrophs both get their energy from chemical substances while photoautotrophs and photoheterotrophs get their energy from light.
question
What are some factors that can be affected by temperature at which bacteria are grown?
answer
The speed of chemical reactions, the rate of bacterial growth, pigment production, total amount of growth are affected by temperature.
question
Compare and contrast psychrophile, mesophile, and thermophile.
answer
Psychrophiles thrive at low temperatures at 15°C or lower, mesophiles thrive between 25-40°C usually body temperature at 37°C, and thermophiles thrive at high temperatures at 50°C or higher
question
Compare and contrast aerobes, anaerobes, microaerophiles, and facultative anaerobes and where do each of them grow?
answer
Aerobes- possess enzymes that allow them to utilize oxygen and neutralize toxic intermediate products formed during respiration process, must have oxygen to grow, oxygen is electron acceptor in ETC
Microaerophiles- need oxygen concentrations between 2-20% for growth
Facultative anaerobes- prefer to grow in the presence of oxygen because they have cytochromes, but will grow under anaerobic environments if a suitable substitute for oxygen is present like nitrate, can respire oxidatively or fermentatively
Anaerobes- oxygen in any content is toxic to microbe, no enzyme to neutralize toxic intermediates
Microaerophiles- need oxygen concentrations between 2-20% for growth
Facultative anaerobes- prefer to grow in the presence of oxygen because they have cytochromes, but will grow under anaerobic environments if a suitable substitute for oxygen is present like nitrate, can respire oxidatively or fermentatively
Anaerobes- oxygen in any content is toxic to microbe, no enzyme to neutralize toxic intermediates
question
How do you inoculate a thioglycollate broth?
answer
stab with a needle into thioglycollate broth
question
What are two examples of anaerobic conditions in the lab?
answer
Anaerobic jar, glove box, and thioglycollate tube.
question
Where is resazurin located in a thioglycollate tube?
answer
resazurin is located throughout the tube
question
What is the function of a thioglycollate?
answer
The function of thioglycollate is to create an oxygen gradient within a tube. top layer is aerobic, middle is microaerobic and the bottom is anaerobic. glucose is present as the carbon and energy source
question
What are the advantages and disadvantages of anaerobic systems in the laboratory?
answer
The advantages of thioglycollate medium is that it's inexpensive and easy to transport, but difficult to obtain a true anaerobic environment.
The advantages of the anaerobic jar are it has lower oxygen concentrations and are pretty inexpensive, but must have a good seal on the jar, and still can be exposed to oxygen with transport of microbe to the jar.
The advantages of the glove box are that there is a lot of space, there is no oxygen present whatsoever but is expensive and takes up lots of room in the laboratory.
The advantages of the anaerobic jar are it has lower oxygen concentrations and are pretty inexpensive, but must have a good seal on the jar, and still can be exposed to oxygen with transport of microbe to the jar.
The advantages of the glove box are that there is a lot of space, there is no oxygen present whatsoever but is expensive and takes up lots of room in the laboratory.
question
How do redox indicators work?
answer
redox indicators detect the presence of oxygen. They are colorless when very little oxygen is present, but will turn red (resazurin) or blue (methylene Blue) is oxygen is present. determines how deep the oxygen has penetrated the media and how much is left anaerobic.
question
Why are anaerobes are unable to live in the presence of oxygen?
answer
Anaerobes cannot live in the presence of oxygen because they lack the enzymes catalase or superoxide dismutase, that can break down the toxic intermediates of oxidative respiration.
question
Thermophilic
answer
organisms that require high temperatures for growth and thrive in heat
question
Thermoduric
answer
organisms will tolerate and survive high temperatures but will not be able to grow and reproduce at high temperatures.
question
Thymine Dimer
answer
binding of two adjacent thymine residues, prevents DNA replication, found in UV irradiation
question
Antimicrobial
answer
chemotherapeutic substances used to inhibit or kill microorganisms, chemical control
question
MIC (Minimal Inhibitory Concentration)
answer
the lowest concentration of a drug that prevents visible growth of the organism, units per ml
question
antibiotic
answer
subgroup of antimicrobials which are biosynthesized by other microbes ex: penicillium, streptomyces, bacillus
question
bacteriostatic
answer
inhibit growth of bacteria
question
bacteriocidal
answer
destroy bacteria
question
zone of inhibition
answer
zones of no growth around discs in Kirby Bauer disc diffusion method
question
MBC (Minimal Bacteriocidal Concentration)
answer
minimal concentration of a antimicrobial required to kill the microorganism
question
Why is it necessary to control the growth of microorganisms?
answer
It's necessary to control the growth of microorganisms because we must be able to combat adverse effects like contamination or disease.
question
What are some physical and chemical controls?
answer
Physical: heat, pasteurization, ultra-high-temperature (UHT) treatment, autoclaving, and UV light irradiation
Chemical: dyes, antimicrobial agents, antiobiotics
Chemical: dyes, antimicrobial agents, antiobiotics
question
Compare and contrast thermophilic and thermoduric microbes.
answer
Thermophilic require high temperatures to grow and reproduce while thermoduric organism tolerate high temperatures but cannot reproduce in them
question
Compare and contrast pasteurization, UHT, autoclaving with respect to temperature, time, pressure, steam, surviving microbes and resultant shelf-life.
answer
Pasteurization- high temperatures, kill non-sporeforming bacteria, destroys pathogens and reduces number of microbes to prolong shelf life (of milk), around 60-100°C, no use of pressure, thermoduric microbes can survive, thus must be refrigerated, no steam
UHT- exposes milk to extremely high temperatures fora brief period of time, can allow milk to be stored at room temperature at long periods of time.
Autoclaving- sterilization process, high heat, pressure, and steam to kill non-sporeforming and sporeforming cells, 121°C for 15 minutes with 15 pounds of pressure
UHT- exposes milk to extremely high temperatures fora brief period of time, can allow milk to be stored at room temperature at long periods of time.
Autoclaving- sterilization process, high heat, pressure, and steam to kill non-sporeforming and sporeforming cells, 121°C for 15 minutes with 15 pounds of pressure
question
How do some microbes survive heat and ultraviolet radiation?
answer
Some microbes survive heat and UV radiation because of their spores or pigmented cells.
question
UV Light Irradiation
answer
physical control, absorbed by purine and pyrimidine bases of DNA, prevents DNA replication, poor penetrating ability, growth around rim of plate because plastic can get in the way of UV light
question
Why is crystal violet at low concentrations more effective against Gram positive microbes than Gram negative microbes?
answer
Low concentrations of crystal violet are bacteriostatic for Gram (+) but not Gram (-) because of differences in cell wall structures (LPS of Gram negative)
question
Compare and contrast dyes and antimicrobials.
answer
Dyes and antimicrobials are both chemical agents of microbial growth control, but dyes are used for selective and differential media, usually don't kill microbes, but antimicrobials inhibit growth or kill microbes via cell wall synthesis, ribosomal action, protein synthesis, and nucleic acid synthesis
question
Classic Tube Dilution Method
answer
increasing concentrations of antimicrobials in test tubes, has a MIC, very sensitive and yields data for direct comparisons among antimicrobials, synergistic and antagonistic effects, possible to test 2 or more antimicrobials at the same time, but tedious, time-consuming, too expensive
question
Micro-Dilution Method
answer
involves a microtiter plate, a tray with many wells, varying concentrations are put in the wells, see growth in wells after incubation, has a MIC, fast specific information but expensive
question
Agar Plate Dilution Method
answer
most common, agar plates of increasing concentration of antimicrobial is used, multiple isolated of microbes can be tested at one time on a single plate, expensive, time consuming, takes up a lot of room
question
E-Test
answer
new diffusion test, plastic strip with a gradient of antimicrobial, U shape zone of inhibition, MIC at the apex of the U, inexpensive
question
Kirby-Bauer Disc Diffusion Method
answer
single high potency discs are used for each antimicrobial, put on surface of plates, after incubation they are examined for zones of inhibition around the discs, susceptibility and resistance based on diameter of zone, has no MIC, highly standardized, Gram (+) = more susceptible than Gram (-) = more resistance
question
Why is a larger zone size for the Kirby-Bauer method not necessarily associated with greater efficacy for a given antimicrobial?
answer
A large zone doesn't indicate usefulness because an antimicrobial will diffuse into the medium around the disc
question
Why is it not always possible to relate in-vitro antimicrobial testing to efficacious treatments in a human or animal?
answer
Not always possible to relate in-vitro to treatments inside organisms because there are high complex interactions in the body, so could be affected by factors like immune response of host, inflammation, bacterial virulence, number of organisms present
question
What is the mode of action for Ampicillin?
answer
cell wall synthesis
question
What is the mode of action for Kanamycin?
answer
protein synthesis
question
What is the mode of action for Gentamicin?
answer
protein synthesis
question
What is the mode of action for Tetracycline?
answer
protein synthesis
question
What is the mode of action for Penicillin?
answer
cell wall synthesis
question
What is the mode of action for Nalidixic Acid?
answer
nucleic acid synthesis
question
What is the mode of action for Chloramphenicol?
answer
protein synthesis
question
What is an experimental control?
answer
a control is a placebo to check the function of each component of the experiment to confirm that the reagent, microbe, or environment involved is functioning as expected.
question
What is the name of the genus of each of the two medically relevant microbes that produce endospores?
answer
Bacillus sp. and Clostridium sp.
question
McFarland Standards
answer
barium sulfate nephelometer standards mimic density of various concentrations of bacteria growing in broth cultures.
0.5 McFarland Standard = 1.5 x 10^8 bacteria/ml
dilute concentrated cultures to standard concentrations for Kirby- Bauer
need fresh culture, add to sterile saline tube and add until densities match between sample and standard, mix frequently to compare, turbidity
0.5 McFarland Standard = 1.5 x 10^8 bacteria/ml
dilute concentrated cultures to standard concentrations for Kirby- Bauer
need fresh culture, add to sterile saline tube and add until densities match between sample and standard, mix frequently to compare, turbidity
question
Triple Sugar Iron Agar (TSI)
answer
How Does This Work?: stab with a needle to bottom of the tube and streak the slant in a zig-zag
Original Color of Medium: beige, tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: study Gram (-) organisms
Selective Agents (Inhibitors):
Differential Agents: fermentation of glucose, lactose, sucrose, production of gas, ferric ammonium citrate and sodium thiosulfate (produce hydrogen sulfide)
pH Indicator: phenol red
Interpretation of Results:
Red/Yellow = K/A = only glucose utilized, rapid depletion of glucose on slant so use peptones, releases ammonia, which is why alkaline slant is produced, aerobic
Yellow/Yellow = A/A = glucose, and lactose and sucrose utilized, a lot more lactose and sucrose so more acid is formed
Yellow/Black = A/A = glucose, lactose, sucrose, H2S production
Red/Black = K/A = glucose and H2S production
Red/Orange = K/NC = only peptones utilized, unable to ferment any CHOs
Black or Blue/Orange = K/NC = peptones utilized with pigment production
Gas formed: splitting of the medium, bubble formation, empty space below agar
H2S Production: black, yellow is beneath, anaerobic conditions, only seen ***********
Original Color of Medium: beige, tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: study Gram (-) organisms
Selective Agents (Inhibitors):
Differential Agents: fermentation of glucose, lactose, sucrose, production of gas, ferric ammonium citrate and sodium thiosulfate (produce hydrogen sulfide)
pH Indicator: phenol red
Interpretation of Results:
Red/Yellow = K/A = only glucose utilized, rapid depletion of glucose on slant so use peptones, releases ammonia, which is why alkaline slant is produced, aerobic
Yellow/Yellow = A/A = glucose, and lactose and sucrose utilized, a lot more lactose and sucrose so more acid is formed
Yellow/Black = A/A = glucose, lactose, sucrose, H2S production
Red/Black = K/A = glucose and H2S production
Red/Orange = K/NC = only peptones utilized, unable to ferment any CHOs
Black or Blue/Orange = K/NC = peptones utilized with pigment production
Gas formed: splitting of the medium, bubble formation, empty space below agar
H2S Production: black, yellow is beneath, anaerobic conditions, only seen ***********
question
Countable Plate
answer
plate that contains 30-300 colony forming units (CFU)
question
Indicator Organism
answer
microbes which are not only commonly found in association with pathogenic species, but which are usually found in much higher numbers than pathogens ex: E. coli
question
Total Heterotroph Count
answer
spread plating 0.1 ml of water onto PCA and incubating to find CFU/ml
question
Standard Plate Count
answer
used to determine the concentration of heterotrophic organisms in water
question
How do you perform serial dilutions?
answer
Aseptically transfer 1.0 ml of sample to first tube in dilution series, with a new sterile pipette aseptically transfer 1.0 ml from that tube to the second tube, repeat this step.
techniques which repeat the same dilution through a series of tubes
techniques which repeat the same dilution through a series of tubes
question
How do you perform a standard plate count (spread plate) and membrane filtration techniques?
answer
Spread Plate: small volume of the sample is spread over entire agar surface
Membrane Filtration: necessary to count number of cells in a certain volume of liquid, force liquid through membrane filter and put on agar plate, small number of microbes
Membrane Filtration: necessary to count number of cells in a certain volume of liquid, force liquid through membrane filter and put on agar plate, small number of microbes
question
How do you calculate the concentration of bacteria (CFU/ml)?
answer
# CFU x FDF
question
How can you alter a procedure to produce a countable plate if the first attempt fails?
answer
...
question
Why is it important to accurately determine the number of microbes in a food or water sample?
answer
it is important to determine the number of microbes because can contain bacteria, molds, yeasts and can question the safety of the food or water samples.
question
What affects the number and types of microbes in a finished food product?
answer
general environment from where the food was obtained, microbial content of food in unprocessed state, sanitary conditions during processing, adequacy of subsequent packaging and storing
question
What microbes make up the flora in milk?
answer
Gram (+), nonmotile, aerobic, microaerophilic, facultative anaerobic rods or cocci
ex: Lactobacillus (probiotic), Listeria, Mycobacterium, Micrococcus, Streptococcus
ex: Lactobacillus (probiotic), Listeria, Mycobacterium, Micrococcus, Streptococcus
question
What are the number of safe microbes in regards to safety of food product?
answer
Raw Milk = 100,000 CFU/ml
Pasteurized Milk = 20,000 CFU/ml
Pasteurized, Cultured Products = N/A
Pasteurized Milk = 20,000 CFU/ml
Pasteurized, Cultured Products = N/A
question
Why are indicator organisms used to determine if a water supply is safe or contaminated?
answer
They are easier to detect than pathogenic organisms and when found, can assume that the water has been contaminated with fecal matter, potential for enteric pathogens in a water supply.
question
What are the indicator organisms observed in m-Endo agar?
answer
Escherichia coli
question
When is water contaminated or not?
answer
Wells: <1 fecal coliform/100 ml water
Public Distribution of Water: <1 fecal coliform/100 ml water
Swimming Areas: <235 fecal coliforms/100 ml water
<500 Total Heterotrophs/ml
Public Distribution of Water: <1 fecal coliform/100 ml water
Swimming Areas: <235 fecal coliforms/100 ml water
<500 Total Heterotrophs/ml
question
Coliforms
answer
microbes that will ferment lactose and produce gas within 48 hours
question
Total Coliforms
answer
includes both environmental and fecal coliforms
question
Fecal Coliforms
answer
coliforms originating from human colons like Escherichia coli
question
m-ENDO Agar
answer
How Does This Work?: membrane filtration test will 100 ml of filtered water, placed on surface of agar plate, 24 hours at body temp
Original Color of Medium: maroon-red
Microbes Selected For and Against: detection of coliforms via membrane filtration, Gram (-) microbes
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): sodium desoxycholate and sodium lauryl sulfate, inhibit Gram (+) and non-enteric Gram (-)
Differential Agents: lactose
Basic Fuchsin and sodium sulfite to detect by products of metabolic processes, aldehyde compounds create red color
pH Indicator:
Interpretation of Results:
Strong Lactose Fermenter (E coli): dark red colonies with a green metallic sheen
Lactose Fermenters (Coliforms): red colonies
Non-Lactose Fermenters: light pink colonies
Original Color of Medium: maroon-red
Microbes Selected For and Against: detection of coliforms via membrane filtration, Gram (-) microbes
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): sodium desoxycholate and sodium lauryl sulfate, inhibit Gram (+) and non-enteric Gram (-)
Differential Agents: lactose
Basic Fuchsin and sodium sulfite to detect by products of metabolic processes, aldehyde compounds create red color
pH Indicator:
Interpretation of Results:
Strong Lactose Fermenter (E coli): dark red colonies with a green metallic sheen
Lactose Fermenters (Coliforms): red colonies
Non-Lactose Fermenters: light pink colonies
question
Plate Count Agar (PCA)
answer
general, nutritional medium, grow organisms that usually live in a diluted environment, allow microbes to thrive, food and water samples
question
Sample Dilution (SDF)
answer
dilution factor inside the flask of the original sample used in the experiment. if not diluted, then SDF=1/1
question
Individual Tube Dilution (ITDF)
answer
volume of sample collected in the tube/volume of the sample transferred and volume of dilution
ex: 0.1ml/ (9.9ml+0.1ml) = ITDF=1/100
ex: 0.1ml/ (9.9ml+0.1ml) = ITDF=1/100
question
Total Series Dilution (TSDF)
answer
product of all ITDF up to the tube associated with the countable plate
question
Plating Dilution (PDF)
answer
how much of the sample is plated FOR THE COUNTABLE PLATE, always compared to 1 ml
ex: 0.1ml plated/1 = PDF=1/10
ex: 0.1ml plated/1 = PDF=1/10
question
Final Dilution (FDF)
answer
product of all the factors: SDF x TSDF x PDF
question
What is TNTC?
answer
Too numerous to count colonies on plate, more than 300 colonies
question
Genetic Variation
answer
mutations of DNA within the genes of a single individual
shuffling of alternate forms of genes/alleles that have accumulated over a population over several generations between two different chromosomes
shuffling of alternate forms of genes/alleles that have accumulated over a population over several generations between two different chromosomes
question
Genetic Recombination
answer
the formation of an altered DNA sequence resulting from the exchanges of DNA from two different sources
question
Spontaneous Mutation
answer
changes in the sequences of the building blocks of DNA (nucleotides)
sometimes beneficial to microbe and organism- antimicrobial
sometimes beneficial to microbe and organism- antimicrobial
question
Conjugation
answer
involves the transfer of an extrachromosomal piece of DNA (F plasmid) between a donor and a recipient bacterium that are in direct contact with one another
more frequent in Gram (-) than (+)
may lead to antimicrobial resistance
donor bacterial strain comes into physical contact with a recipient strain and transfers genetic material
selective for metabolic pathways and antibiotic resistance
more frequent in Gram (-) than (+)
may lead to antimicrobial resistance
donor bacterial strain comes into physical contact with a recipient strain and transfers genetic material
selective for metabolic pathways and antibiotic resistance
question
Transformation
answer
uptake of soluble, free/ naked chromosomal DNA by competent bacteria cells changing the genetic constitution (genome) of a bacterial cell
donor cell has DNA that recipient cell is lacking, acquires a new genetic property
selective for antibiotic resistance
donor cell has DNA that recipient cell is lacking, acquires a new genetic property
selective for antibiotic resistance
question
Transduction
answer
transfer of genes from one bacterial cell to another by a bacterial virus, bacteriophage that inhabits at the donor bacterial strain
donor bacteria is infected by bacteriophage, bacteriophage injects its DNA into the host cell, breaks up bacterial chromosome, creates viral DNA, viral particle assembly, host bacteria lyses, new virus released to infect a recipient cell with mostly viral DNA, some donor bacterial DNA
selective for metabolic pathways
donor bacteria is infected by bacteriophage, bacteriophage injects its DNA into the host cell, breaks up bacterial chromosome, creates viral DNA, viral particle assembly, host bacteria lyses, new virus released to infect a recipient cell with mostly viral DNA, some donor bacterial DNA
selective for metabolic pathways
question
Plasmid
answer
extrachromosomal genetic elements that encode a number of DNA transfer functions, possess transfer genes that specify and control the formation of pilus, substances to minimize donor-donor mating, transfer of plasmid or chromosomal DNA
"luxury" because often times code for products not essential for normal metabolism, usually antibiotic resistance or alternative metabolism
an extrachromosomal genetic structure that can replicate independently within a bacterial cell
ex: F plasmid- replication and number of conjugative plasmids
R plasmid- antibiotic resistance
"luxury" because often times code for products not essential for normal metabolism, usually antibiotic resistance or alternative metabolism
an extrachromosomal genetic structure that can replicate independently within a bacterial cell
ex: F plasmid- replication and number of conjugative plasmids
R plasmid- antibiotic resistance
question
Pilus
answer
extrachromosomal genetic elements that encode a number of DNA transfer functions
question
Transconjugates
answer
recipient bacteria that have taken up a plasmid, the original recipient parental strain which participated in conjugation and now has the F plasmid
question
Donor
answer
free naked DNA transfered to a recipient cell
question
Recipient
answer
uptake of free nakes DNA into genome
question
Bacteriophage
answer
bacterial viruses, also known as phages, only infect specific cells with receptors they can recognize
question
Temperate Phage
answer
causes lysogeny, viral resting phase
question
Competent Cells
answer
recipient cells that are capable of incorporating free DNA, can become competent by changing environmental conditions
specific conditions are necessary to obtain maximum competence of recipient cell populations:condition of donor DNA, stage in growth cycle of recipient, nutritive value of medium, presence of cations
specific conditions are necessary to obtain maximum competence of recipient cell populations:condition of donor DNA, stage in growth cycle of recipient, nutritive value of medium, presence of cations
question
Artificial Transformation
answer
changing the environment that the recipient lives in to become a competent cell
question
Transformant
answer
a recipient cell that uptakes free naked DNA and integrates into its DNA genome
question
Satellite Colonies
answer
grow around transformants on a transduction experiment plate because there is not ampicillin surrounding transformant, so use that little space to grow and divide.
tiny colonies growing as satellites around larger colonies, larger colonies are transformed cells which are capable of producing beta-lactamase, which is an enzyme that destroys ampicillin around larger colony.
tiny colonies growing as satellites around larger colonies, larger colonies are transformed cells which are capable of producing beta-lactamase, which is an enzyme that destroys ampicillin around larger colony.
question
Transductant
answer
recipient cells that acquire a donor trait
question
Defective Phage
answer
the bacteriophage involved in transduction, transducing particle, doesn't contain a full copy of its own DNA, contains some bacterial DNA
virus is able to absorb and penetrate, but cannot progress further through the lytic cell
virus is able to absorb and penetrate, but cannot progress further through the lytic cell
question
Lysogeny
answer
Viral resting phase, viral DNA is integrated into bacteria DNA and is duplicated when the bacteria duplicates its DNA, can continue indefinitely
question
Prophage
answer
viral DNA insert into a bacterial DNA genome during lysogeny
question
Lysogen
answer
bacterial cell with the integrated virus prophage
question
Lytic Cycle
answer
viral reproducing phase, usually manifests itself, injected viral DNA takes over bacteria's protein manufacturing machinery and directs the synthesis and assembly of new viral particles until all phage particles are put together, then cell will lyse releasing new bacteriophage.
question
Virulent Phage
answer
infecting virus that causes lytic cycle in host cell, doesn't cause lysogeny
question
P-22
answer
virulent bacteriophage capable of infecting and lysing Salmonella
question
Plaque
answer
discrete circular clearing that form amidst a lawn of confluent bacterial growth as a result of the lytic response, areas of reproducing virus and dead bacteria
plaque stops growing when bacteria reach stationary growth because viruses cannot infect
results from the single initial infection which spreads outward concentrically, theoretically from one phage particle
plaque stops growing when bacteria reach stationary growth because viruses cannot infect
results from the single initial infection which spreads outward concentrically, theoretically from one phage particle
question
Lawn
answer
a plate of confluent bacterial growth
question
What is the role of F plasmid in conjugation?
answer
structure: F+ (independent in cytoplasm), Hfr (part of bacterial cell), F' (detached from bacterial chromosome with some of its own genes)
Hfr = fastest
gene: responsible for the replication and number of conjugative plasmids produced
Hfr = fastest
gene: responsible for the replication and number of conjugative plasmids produced
question
How do you perform the cross-streak conjugation mating technique?
answer
1. Use a MG/STR plate
2. streak the donor (ERW) down the middle of the MG/STR plate
3. streak the recipient (B380) across the middle of the MG/STR plate
2. streak the donor (ERW) down the middle of the MG/STR plate
3. streak the recipient (B380) across the middle of the MG/STR plate
question
How can you tell if the control works in a cross-streak conjugation mating plate?
answer
The controls worked if there is only growth in the middle or a little bit to the right of the middle. The controls should not have grown on the plate because ERW- is susceptible to streptomycin (STR) and B380 is unable to grow without histidine.
question
How can you tell if the experiment worked on a cross-streak conjugation mating plate?
answer
The experiment worked if there was growth where the two microbes came in contact with each other in the middle of the plate. This means the his+ gene was conjugated from ERW to B380 so B380 could grow without the presence of histidine
question
How can you tell if there were any spontaneous mutations on the cross-streak conjugation mating plate?
answer
Spontaneous mutants would have grown in another area besides growth on controls.
question
How do you perform a transformation experiment?
answer
1. transfer all DNA to the experiment tube
2. Incubate on ice
3. Heat shock
4. Add 0.2 ml of LB Broth
5. Plate experiment DNA onto an LB/AMP Plate
6. Plate control DNA onto an LB Plate and an LB/AMP Plate
2. Incubate on ice
3. Heat shock
4. Add 0.2 ml of LB Broth
5. Plate experiment DNA onto an LB/AMP Plate
6. Plate control DNA onto an LB Plate and an LB/AMP Plate
question
How can you tell if the controls worked on a transformation plate?
answer
The controls worked if there was no growth on the LB/AMP Plate and confluent growth on LB Plate. Control 1 demonstrates the E. coli JA228 is a healthy microbe. Control 2 with no growth shows JA228 is susceptible to ampicillin so it won't grow when it is present.
question
How can you tell if the transformation worked on a transformation plate?
answer
The transformation worked on the transformation LB/AMP experiment plate if there is growth of transformants on the plate, who are ampicillin resistant. They grow and satellite colonies grow around the transformants in the space where no ampicillin is present.
question
How can you tell if there were any spontaneous mutations on the transformation plate?
answer
Look for spontaneous mutants on the Control 2 LB/AMP Plate because they would be ampicillin resistant, so they would grow when E. coli JA228 wouldn't.
question
How do you perform a transduction experiment?
answer
1. Obtain 1.1 ml of Salmonella typhimurium
2. Transfer 0.3 ml of S. typhimurium as bacterial control
3. Transfer 0.1 ml of P-22 bacteriophage to the remaining 0.8 ml of Salmonella as experiment tube.
4. Incubate 3 tubes, experiment, viral and bacterial control for 15 minutes.
5. Plate 0.1 ml of the bacterial control to an MG plate labeled bacterial control 2.
6. Place 0.1 of the bacterial control onto an MG/TRP plate labeled bacterial control 1.
7. Transfer experiment to two MG plates, experiment 1 and 2.
8. Place the viral control onto an MG plate, viral control plate
2. Transfer 0.3 ml of S. typhimurium as bacterial control
3. Transfer 0.1 ml of P-22 bacteriophage to the remaining 0.8 ml of Salmonella as experiment tube.
4. Incubate 3 tubes, experiment, viral and bacterial control for 15 minutes.
5. Plate 0.1 ml of the bacterial control to an MG plate labeled bacterial control 2.
6. Place 0.1 of the bacterial control onto an MG/TRP plate labeled bacterial control 1.
7. Transfer experiment to two MG plates, experiment 1 and 2.
8. Place the viral control onto an MG plate, viral control plate
question
How can you tell if the controls worked on a transduction plate?
answer
The controls worked if viral control plate had no growth because viruses are dead. There should be confluent growth on bacterial control 1 because it is the donor. It has trp+ so it can grow and use its own nutrients and tryptophan to live. Bacteria control 2 should have no growth because needs tryptophan to live and it is absent from the environment.
question
How can you tell if the transduction experiment worked?
answer
Transductant will have picked up the trp+ gene from the phages and how has own nutrients of tryptophan to grow, so there was lots of growth on the plate.
question
How can you tell if there were any spontaneous mutations on the transduction plate?
answer
Look for on bacterial control 2 where there should be no growth, if there are spontaneous mutants they would be tryp+ and be able to grow.
question
Compare and contrast plasmids and bacteriophages
answer
replication with a host:
replication without a host:
transfer of DNA between bacteria: viral attachment of bacteriophage to bacteria cell and injected in or uptake via pilus or naked DNA
harmful or beneficial to bacterial host?:
physical manifestations if harmful to host: bacteriophage lyse the cell in the end
physical manifestations if helpful to host: can transfer genes that are helpful for survival of bacteria
replication without a host:
transfer of DNA between bacteria: viral attachment of bacteriophage to bacteria cell and injected in or uptake via pilus or naked DNA
harmful or beneficial to bacterial host?:
physical manifestations if harmful to host: bacteriophage lyse the cell in the end
physical manifestations if helpful to host: can transfer genes that are helpful for survival of bacteria
question
Compare and contrast conjugation, transformation and transduction
answer
types of DNA transferred:
conjugation- plasmids (F plasmid)
transformation- naked chromosomal DNA or plasmids
transduction- mostly viral DNA, some bacterial DNA is transferred
how DNA is transferred:
conjugation- plasmid via pilus
transformation- taken up into cell and incorporated into recipient DNA genome
transduction- transferred via bacteriophage from donor to recipient cell
conjugation- plasmids (F plasmid)
transformation- naked chromosomal DNA or plasmids
transduction- mostly viral DNA, some bacterial DNA is transferred
how DNA is transferred:
conjugation- plasmid via pilus
transformation- taken up into cell and incorporated into recipient DNA genome
transduction- transferred via bacteriophage from donor to recipient cell
question
What are the physical manifestations of the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage in a host cell?
answer
the physical manifestation is the lyse of the bacteria cell and the release of bacteriophage to infect more bacterial cells
question
Compare and contrast lysogenic and lytic cells
answer
steps involved:
lysogeny-attachment, penetration, resting phase
lytic cycle- attachment, penetration, synthesis, lyse and release
immediate or later:
lysogeny- later
lytic- immediate
physical manifestations of phage:
both end in the lysing of the cells, but at different times
type of virus:
bacteriophage
interaction with host cell:
both attach, penertrate
lysogeny- incorporate viral DNA into bacterial DNA and duplicates over time
lytic- takes over bacteria proteins for manufacturing and creates many new viral particles
lysogeny-attachment, penetration, resting phase
lytic cycle- attachment, penetration, synthesis, lyse and release
immediate or later:
lysogeny- later
lytic- immediate
physical manifestations of phage:
both end in the lysing of the cells, but at different times
type of virus:
bacteriophage
interaction with host cell:
both attach, penertrate
lysogeny- incorporate viral DNA into bacterial DNA and duplicates over time
lytic- takes over bacteria proteins for manufacturing and creates many new viral particles
question
Why do plaques develop? Why do they not develop in the plaque assay procedure?
answer
Plaques develop when viruses lyse bacteria and go on to infect other bacteria
they don't develop in plaque assay procedure because bacteria stop growing and cannot be affected by virus
they don't develop in plaque assay procedure because bacteria stop growing and cannot be affected by virus
question
Why do bacteriophage need to reproduce in a host cell?
answer
Bacteriophage need to reproduce in host cell so they can use the mechanisms inside the bacteria to create more viral DNA to create more viruses. Require metabolic machinery, obligate intracellular parasites
question
How do you perform a plaque assay?
answer
DILUTING THE VIRUS
1. Transfer all 0.5 viral culture to the TPB tube (X 10 ^-1)
2. Transfer 0.5 of X to Y (10^-2) tube
3. Transfer 0.5 of Y to Z (10^-3) tube
BACTERIA CONTROL
1. Add 0.3 ml E. coli to soft agar, then pour into a plate.
VIRAL CONTROL
1. Add 0.1 ml of TPB tube X to the soft agar, plate.
DILUTED VIRAL EXPERIMENT
1. Add 0.3 ml E. coli B and 0.1 ml virus, either X,Y,or Z into the soft agar and plate.
1. Transfer all 0.5 viral culture to the TPB tube (X 10 ^-1)
2. Transfer 0.5 of X to Y (10^-2) tube
3. Transfer 0.5 of Y to Z (10^-3) tube
BACTERIA CONTROL
1. Add 0.3 ml E. coli to soft agar, then pour into a plate.
VIRAL CONTROL
1. Add 0.1 ml of TPB tube X to the soft agar, plate.
DILUTED VIRAL EXPERIMENT
1. Add 0.3 ml E. coli B and 0.1 ml virus, either X,Y,or Z into the soft agar and plate.
question
How do you calculate the PFUs and PFU/ml?
answer
count number of countable PFUs on a plate
PFU/ ml = number plaques x (1/FDF)
PFU/ ml = number plaques x (1/FDF)
question
Genotype
answer
actual genes the microbe posses
question
Phenotype
answer
observable characteristics or traits presented by the microbe
question
arg-
answer
microbe has non-functional arginine gene and will need arginine provided in the medium to be able to grow
question
arg+
answer
microbe has a functional arginine gene and will not need a source of arginine to grow
question
his-
answer
microbe has a non-functional histidine gene and will need histidine provided in the medium to be able to grow
question
his+
answer
microbe has a functional histidine gene and does not need a source of histidine to grow
question
trp-
answer
microbe has a non-functional tryptophan gene and will need tryptophan provided in the medium to grow
question
trp+
answer
microbe has functional tryptophan gene and doesn't need a source of tryptophan to grow
question
amp (s)
answer
microbe is sensitive to ampicillin and will not grow in any medium which contains this antibiotic
question
amp (r)
answer
microbe is resistant to ampicillin and is capable of growing in the presence of ampicillin
question
str (s)
answer
microbe is sensitive to streptomycin and will not grow in any medium which contains this antibiotic
question
str (r)
answer
microbe is resistant to streptomycin and is capable of growing in the presence of streptomycin
question
Prototroph
answer
donor cells, capability of making all of the essential elements necessary for growth and can grow on a medium which is devoid of extra growth factors
ex: Minimal Glucose
ex: Minimal Glucose
question
Auxotroph
answer
recipient cells, mutant cell that is lacking a growth factor that is essential for growth
question
Minimal Media
answer
a medium that contains a certain amino acid that can be selective for some microbes, must have genes for synthesis
question
Beta Lactamase
answer
enzyme secreted from E. coli JA228 amp (r) that destroys the surrounding ampicillin
question
Defective Phage Mutants
answer
Bacteriophages that have virus heads packed with bacterial host DNA, cannot produce any more viruses but can still infect a bacterial cell and inject bacterial host DNA into bacteria cell, which could potentially replace DNA inside host genome
question
Revertants
answer
a mutant cell which has undergone another mutation where the second mutational event reverses what happened in the initial mutation
question
Minimal Glucose (MG)
answer
How Does This Work?: selective, only microbes that can synthesize their own nutrients can grow on this plate
Original Color of Medium: tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: must be able to synthesize whatever nutrients are lacking in the medium, prototrophs and hardy microbes
Nutrients: glucose, N, salt, P
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
growth or no growth based on genes present
Original Color of Medium: tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: must be able to synthesize whatever nutrients are lacking in the medium, prototrophs and hardy microbes
Nutrients: glucose, N, salt, P
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
growth or no growth based on genes present
question
Minimal Glucose and Streptomycin (MG/STR)
answer
How Does This Work?: inhibits protein synthesis via streptomycin
Original Color of Medium: tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: microbes that are streptomycin resistance, prototrophs
Nutrients: glucose, N, salt, P, streptomycin
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): streptomycin
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
growth or no growth based on if the microbe has streptomycin resistant gene or not
Original Color of Medium: tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: microbes that are streptomycin resistance, prototrophs
Nutrients: glucose, N, salt, P, streptomycin
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): streptomycin
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
growth or no growth based on if the microbe has streptomycin resistant gene or not
question
Minimal Glucose and Streptomycin and Histidin (MG/STR/HIS)
answer
How Does This Work?: selective, only microbes that can synthesize their own nutrients can grow on this plate
Original Color of Medium: tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: must be streptomycin resistant and supports growth of histidine auxotrophs
Nutrients: glucose, N, salt, P, streptomycin and histidine
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): streptomycin, histidine
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
growth or no growth based on genes present, his- and str (r)
Original Color of Medium: tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: must be streptomycin resistant and supports growth of histidine auxotrophs
Nutrients: glucose, N, salt, P, streptomycin and histidine
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): streptomycin, histidine
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
growth or no growth based on genes present, his- and str (r)
question
Minimal Glucose and Tryptophan (MG/TRP)
answer
How Does This Work?: selective, only microbes that can synthesize their own nutrients can grow on this plate
Original Color of Medium: tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: supports auxotrophic tryptophan (trp-) microbes
Nutrients: glucose, N, salt, P, tryptophan
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
growth or no growth based on genes present, growth if trp-
Original Color of Medium: tan, N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: supports auxotrophic tryptophan (trp-) microbes
Nutrients: glucose, N, salt, P, tryptophan
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
growth or no growth based on genes present, growth if trp-
question
What is the difference between F+, F-, Hfr, and F' cells?
answer
F+ cell: a donor cell carrying the F plasmid, which is not attached to the bacterial chromosome
F- cell: a recipient cell lacking the F plasmid
Hfr cell: a bacterial strain that exhibits a high frequency of gene transfer and recombination during a mating process. The F plasmid DNA is part of the bacterial chromosome, usually from a F+ cell
F' cell: a bacterial strain that has the F plasmid not integrated in the bacterial chromosome, obtained a piece of bacterial chromosome DNA, derived from a Hfr cell, when plasmid is removed from the chromosome
F- cell: a recipient cell lacking the F plasmid
Hfr cell: a bacterial strain that exhibits a high frequency of gene transfer and recombination during a mating process. The F plasmid DNA is part of the bacterial chromosome, usually from a F+ cell
F' cell: a bacterial strain that has the F plasmid not integrated in the bacterial chromosome, obtained a piece of bacterial chromosome DNA, derived from a Hfr cell, when plasmid is removed from the chromosome
question
Escherichia Coli ERW Donor
answer
prototroph
MG Plate: growth because have F' plasmid with his+
MG/STR: no growth because str (s)
MG/STR/HIS: no growth because str (s)
MG Plate: growth because have F' plasmid with his+
MG/STR: no growth because str (s)
MG/STR/HIS: no growth because str (s)
question
Escherichia Coli B380 Recipient
answer
auxotroph
MG: no growth because his- and medium contains no histidine
MG/STR: no growth because his- and medium contains no histidine
MG/STR/HIS: growth because str (r) and medium contains histidine
MG: no growth because his- and medium contains no histidine
MG/STR: no growth because his- and medium contains no histidine
MG/STR/HIS: growth because str (r) and medium contains histidine
question
Escherichia Coli Transconjugate B380
answer
MG: growth because has F' plasmid with his+
MG/STR: growth because str (r) and has F' plasmid with his+
MG/STR/HIS: growth because str (r), but could lose plasmid if in histidine medium
MG/STR: growth because str (r) and has F' plasmid with his+
MG/STR/HIS: growth because str (r), but could lose plasmid if in histidine medium
question
Escherichia Coli JA228 Recipient
answer
auxotroph
MG: no growth because is arg- and medium contains no arginine
MG/STR/ARG: growth because str (r) and medium contains arginine
LB: growth because medium has all essential amino acids
LB/AMP: no growth because amp (s)
MG: no growth because is arg- and medium contains no arginine
MG/STR/ARG: growth because str (r) and medium contains arginine
LB: growth because medium has all essential amino acids
LB/AMP: no growth because amp (s)
question
Escherichia Coli Transformant JA228
answer
MG: growth because strp (r) and amp (r), medium contains arginine
LB: growth because medium has all the essential amino acids
LB/AMP: growth because is amp (r) and medium has all essential amino acids
LB: growth because medium has all the essential amino acids
LB/AMP: growth because is amp (r) and medium has all essential amino acids
question
Salmonella typhimurium Donor
answer
prototroph
MG: growth because is trp+
MG: growth because is trp+
question
Salmonella typhimurium Recipient
answer
auxotroph
MG: no growth because trp- so needs tryptophan to grow
MG/TRP: growth because medium contains tryptophan
MG: no growth because trp- so needs tryptophan to grow
MG/TRP: growth because medium contains tryptophan
question
Salmonella typhimurium Transductant
answer
MG: growth because has new trp+ from P-22
MG/TRP: growth because has new trp+ from P-22, so TRP in medium isn't needed but won't impact growth
MG/TRP: growth because has new trp+ from P-22, so TRP in medium isn't needed but won't impact growth
question
What spontaneous mutant can show up when ERW donor is plated on MG/STR?
answer
ERW can grow on the donor line streak if it spontaneously mutates and becomes streptomycin resistant.
question
What spontaneous mutant can show up when B380 is plated on MG/STR?
answer
B380 can grow on the recipient line streak it is spontaneously mutates and becomes his+, would become a revertant
question
What spontaneous mutant can show up when JA228 is plated on LB/AMP?
answer
Spontaneous mutants that are ampicillin resistant can grow when JA228 is plated
question
Compare and contrast the JA228's cell antimicrobial resistance to antimicrobial resistance on the ampicillin plasmid
answer
name of antimicrobial resistance acquired: amp (r)
type of DNA where resistance resides: plasmid is naked DNA
what additional gene has been acquired: beta-lactamase gene
gene product: beta lactamase enzyme
type of DNA where resistance resides: plasmid is naked DNA
what additional gene has been acquired: beta-lactamase gene
gene product: beta lactamase enzyme
question
What spontaneous mutant can show up when Salmonella typhimurium is plated on MG?
answer
The spontaneous mutant would be the revertant Salmonella typhimurium. The trp- gene has mutated back again to trp+ and can grow on the plate
question
What are the 5 steps of the lytic cycle?
answer
1. Adsorption- host specific bacteriophage attachment to the bacteria cell
2. Penetration- viral nucleic acid enters bacterial cell
3. Synthesis- virus takes over bacterial replication mechanisms and makes viral nucleic acids and proteins
4. Assembly- viral proteins and nucleic acids are put together to create new viruses
5. Release- cell is lysed and new viruses are released
2. Penetration- viral nucleic acid enters bacterial cell
3. Synthesis- virus takes over bacterial replication mechanisms and makes viral nucleic acids and proteins
4. Assembly- viral proteins and nucleic acids are put together to create new viruses
5. Release- cell is lysed and new viruses are released
question
What are the 7 steps of the lysogenic cycle?
answer
1. Adsorption- virus attaches to bacteria cell, host specific
2. Penetration- viral nucleic acid enters bacterial cell
3. Integration- viral DNA is inserted into bacterial chromosome and becomes part of the chromosome rather than causing viral synthesis, virus can stay integrated like this indefinitely until some event occurs which activates, forces out the virus
4. Induction- when the viral DNA removes itself from the bacterial chromosome, when cell is damaged or about to die
5. Synthesis- makes viral proteins and nucleic acids
6. Assembly- creation of viruses
7. Release- cell is lysed and release of viral progeny
2. Penetration- viral nucleic acid enters bacterial cell
3. Integration- viral DNA is inserted into bacterial chromosome and becomes part of the chromosome rather than causing viral synthesis, virus can stay integrated like this indefinitely until some event occurs which activates, forces out the virus
4. Induction- when the viral DNA removes itself from the bacterial chromosome, when cell is damaged or about to die
5. Synthesis- makes viral proteins and nucleic acids
6. Assembly- creation of viruses
7. Release- cell is lysed and release of viral progeny
question
Transient Flora
answer
microbes which are only associated with the body for a short time due to variations in diet, health, etc.
question
Normal Flora
answer
microbes comprising relatively permanent, natural residency and are constant over time
question
Pathogenic
answer
microbes able to cause disease, usually held in check by competitive and beneficial normal microflora
question
Opportunistic
answer
changes in the normal balance of indigenous microbes because analagous disturbances that are already present can cause disease state
ex: Candida albicans
ex: Candida albicans
question
Candidiasis
answer
Candidas albicans lives in competition in the intestine, but if broad spectrum of antimicrobials are used, they will wipe out many normal microflora. Candida albicans is eukaryotic so it will survive since it's resistant to bacterial antibiotics
question
Meningococcus
answer
also known as Neisseria meningitidis, live on the mucous membranes inside nasopharynx, causes bacterial meningitis via respiratory secretions
question
Carrier
answer
healthy people who harbor potentially pathogenic organisms like S. aureus
question
Nosocomial Infection
answer
hospital-acquired infection, can occur through aerosols in a sneeze, touching nose or face, secondhand disease, usually occurs in immunocompromised individuals
increased resistance due to transfer of plasmids
increased resistance due to transfer of plasmids
question
What are some microbes in the intestinal tract?
answer
Candidas albicans
Actinomycetes, Bacteriodes sp., Bifidobacterium sp., Clostridium sp., Enterococcus sp., Fusobacterium sp., Escherichia coli, Lactobacillus sp., Peptostreptococcus sp., Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp., Veillonella sp.
Actinomycetes, Bacteriodes sp., Bifidobacterium sp., Clostridium sp., Enterococcus sp., Fusobacterium sp., Escherichia coli, Lactobacillus sp., Peptostreptococcus sp., Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp., Veillonella sp.
question
What are some microbes in the oral cavity?
answer
many do not grow on ordinary media, Streptococcus mutans, Streptococcus sanguis
Actinomycetes, Bacteriodes sp., Candida albicans, Fusobacterium sp., Lactobacillus sp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Neisseria sp., Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp., Veillonella sp.
Actinomycetes, Bacteriodes sp., Candida albicans, Fusobacterium sp., Lactobacillus sp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Neisseria sp., Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp., Veillonella sp.
question
What are some microbes in the nasopharynx?
answer
Neisseria meningitidis, meningococcus, Staphylococcus aureus
Corynebacterium sp., Haemophilus sp., Lactobacillus sp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Neisseria sp., Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp., Streptococcus pneumoniae
Corynebacterium sp., Haemophilus sp., Lactobacillus sp., Moraxella catarrhalis, Neisseria sp., Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp., Streptococcus pneumoniae
question
What are some microbes on the skin?
answer
aerobes and facultative aerobes
Candida albicans, Corynebacterium sp., Micrococcus sp., Propionobacterium sp., Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp.
Candida albicans, Corynebacterium sp., Micrococcus sp., Propionobacterium sp., Staphylococcus sp., Streptococcus sp.
question
What microbe can grow out of control?
answer
name: Candida albicans
disease: Candidiasis
what happens in body to cause disease: antimicrobials wipe out normal microflora, eukaryotic so can take over an cause an intestinal infection
relationship between human and microbe: usually outcompeted by normal microflora, but can be an opportunistic microbe
disease: Candidiasis
what happens in body to cause disease: antimicrobials wipe out normal microflora, eukaryotic so can take over an cause an intestinal infection
relationship between human and microbe: usually outcompeted by normal microflora, but can be an opportunistic microbe
question
What microbe uses adherence to set up a pathological condition?
answer
name: Streptococcus mutans
disease: dental cavities
place of adhesion: S. sanguis attach to tooth surface via fimbriae and then S. mutans can attach to S. sanguis
relationship between human and microbe: fermentation producing acid extracts Ca from tooth enamel causing dental carries
disease: dental cavities
place of adhesion: S. sanguis attach to tooth surface via fimbriae and then S. mutans can attach to S. sanguis
relationship between human and microbe: fermentation producing acid extracts Ca from tooth enamel causing dental carries
question
What microbe can be "carried" by hospital personnel?
answer
name: S. aureus
disease: nosocomial infection
type of patient susceptible: immunocompromised, those already in the hospital
disease: nosocomial infection
type of patient susceptible: immunocompromised, those already in the hospital
question
How do hospitals screen employees for transient flora?
answer
periodic screening
sampling the anterior nares with a swab, incoulation of selective, differential agar and general purpose agar, interpretation of the medium, treatment of the carrier
seldom done unless there is an outbreak
sampling the anterior nares with a swab, incoulation of selective, differential agar and general purpose agar, interpretation of the medium, treatment of the carrier
seldom done unless there is an outbreak
question
What is the function of skin with retaining normal flora on skin?
answer
physical and chemical barrier
question
What doesn't washing remove microbes?
answer
washing doesn't remove microbes because of the topography of the skin with the layer of body oils present
skin asepsis- strong germicides (betadine) surgical scrubbing procedures
skin asepsis- strong germicides (betadine) surgical scrubbing procedures
question
What is the benefit of microbes on the skin?
answer
normal flora on skin outcompete pathogenic microbes on skin
question
What is the potential hazards to skin if microbes were gone?
answer
If they were gone, they couldn't outcompete pathogens and would enter through breaks, cuts, and scratches in the skin
question
What is the relationship between microbe and skin?
answer
beneficial microbes keep pathogenic bacteria in check on the skin
question
Why is it important to know if a microbe is a prokaryote or a eukaryote inhabiting the body?
answer
to determine the correct treatment to give, don't give a bacterial antimicrobial if it is a eukaryote because won't kill the microbe and will allow microbe to flourish because it won't have to compete with other bacteria since they're all gone
question
Streptococcus mutans
answer
found in the production of dental carries, attach more readily to tooth surface if S. sanguis is present
acid production from fermentation, extracts Ca from tooth enamel causing dental caries, tooth decay
hemolysins
BAP: Alpha, green halo, partial lysis via hemolysins
acid production from fermentation, extracts Ca from tooth enamel causing dental caries, tooth decay
hemolysins
BAP: Alpha, green halo, partial lysis via hemolysins
question
Streptococcus sanguis
answer
found in the production of dental carries, produces fimbriae that attach to the surface of the tooth
can produce gingival (gum) abscesses
hemolysins
BAP: Alpha, green halo, partial lysis of cells
can produce gingival (gum) abscesses
hemolysins
BAP: Alpha, green halo, partial lysis of cells
question
Lactobacillus sp.
answer
Gram (+) purple rods
Catalase: (-)
forms small, pinpoint colonies on agar
normal oral, intestinal and vaginal flora
helps keep foreign microbes in check
TJ: pinpoint colonies
Catalase: (-)
forms small, pinpoint colonies on agar
normal oral, intestinal and vaginal flora
helps keep foreign microbes in check
TJ: pinpoint colonies
question
Neisseria meningitidis
answer
Gram (-) diplococci, kidney bean shaped
Oxidase: (+)
causes meningitis
found in the nasopharynx
Oxidase: (+)
causes meningitis
found in the nasopharynx
question
Escherichia coli O157:H7 (EHEC)
answer
enterohemorrhagic E. coli
Gram (-) rod
Oxidase: (-)
additional genetic information that codes for toxins, food poisoning
Gram (-) rod
Oxidase: (-)
additional genetic information that codes for toxins, food poisoning
question
Mitis- Salivarius Agar (MS)
answer
How Does This Work?: isolate and different oral streptococci
Original Color of Medium: light blue
Microbes Selected For and Against: selected for Gram (-) rods and streptococci
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): crystal violet, potassium tellurite, inhibit Gram (+)
Differential Agents: trypan blur, tellurite, glucose, sucrose
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results: N/A
Original Color of Medium: light blue
Microbes Selected For and Against: selected for Gram (-) rods and streptococci
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): crystal violet, potassium tellurite, inhibit Gram (+)
Differential Agents: trypan blur, tellurite, glucose, sucrose
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results: N/A
question
Mannitol Salts Agar (MSA)
answer
How Does This Work?: color change based on metabolism and growth based on ability to live in high salt concentrations
Original Color of Medium: pink/orange
Microbes Selected For and Against: bacteria that can grow in high salt concentrations, screening for S. aureus, mannitol fermenter or peptone fermenter based on color of the media
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): 7.5% NaCl, selects for halotolerant bacteria
Differential Agents: mannitol, fermented to produce acidic by-products or peptone breakdown to form alkaline products
pH Indicator: phenol red
Interpretation of Results:
growth: halotolerant
no growth: not halotolerant
mannitol fermenter: growth, yellow colonies with yellow surrounding media
non-mannitol fermenter: growth, red colonies with red surrounding media
Original Color of Medium: pink/orange
Microbes Selected For and Against: bacteria that can grow in high salt concentrations, screening for S. aureus, mannitol fermenter or peptone fermenter based on color of the media
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): 7.5% NaCl, selects for halotolerant bacteria
Differential Agents: mannitol, fermented to produce acidic by-products or peptone breakdown to form alkaline products
pH Indicator: phenol red
Interpretation of Results:
growth: halotolerant
no growth: not halotolerant
mannitol fermenter: growth, yellow colonies with yellow surrounding media
non-mannitol fermenter: growth, red colonies with red surrounding media
question
Tomato Juice Agar (TJ)
answer
How Does This Work?: isolation and identification of Candida albicans and Lactobacillus sp., oral microbes
Original Color of Medium: brown
Microbes Selected For and Against: selected for specifically Candida albicans and Lactobacillus sp.
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): tomato juice, low pH of the medium
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
Candida albicans: creamy opaque colonies
Lactobacillus sp: pinpoint colonies
Original Color of Medium: brown
Microbes Selected For and Against: selected for specifically Candida albicans and Lactobacillus sp.
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): tomato juice, low pH of the medium
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
Candida albicans: creamy opaque colonies
Lactobacillus sp: pinpoint colonies
question
Pathogenicity
answer
ability to cause a disease, yes or no question
question
Virulence
answer
the degree of pathogenicity, based on virulence factors, how able microbes are to evade immune system
question
Toxigenicity
answer
subdivision of virulence
production of toxic compounds by an organism
production of toxic compounds by an organism
question
Invasiveness
answer
subdivision of virulence
ability of an organism to colonize a host, resist host defense mechanisms and spread
ability of an organism to colonize a host, resist host defense mechanisms and spread
question
Phagocytosis
answer
engulfment by host white blood cells
question
Coagulase
answer
extracellular enzyme produced by S. aureus to avoid phagocytosis, converts fibrinogen to fibrin, causes coagulation
form fibrin walls around the staphylococcal lesion, layer of fibrin surround each staphylococcal cell, resist host defense mechanisms, anti-phagocytic properties
separate S. aureus from S. epidermidis
two forms, bound and free
form fibrin walls around the staphylococcal lesion, layer of fibrin surround each staphylococcal cell, resist host defense mechanisms, anti-phagocytic properties
separate S. aureus from S. epidermidis
two forms, bound and free
question
Bound Coagulase
answer
"clumping factor", remains attached to the cell surface, when S. aureus is mixed with rabbit plasma, fibrin is formed around the cells causing them to clump
if negative for slide test, do tube test
BOUND COAGULASE= SLIDE TEST
if negative for slide test, do tube test
BOUND COAGULASE= SLIDE TEST
question
Free Coagulase
answer
present in cell-free filtrates, will cause a small tube of rabbit plasma to coagulate
FREE COAGULASE = TUBE TEST
FREE COAGULASE = TUBE TEST
question
Hemolysins
answer
proteins produced by bacteria that cause animal cells to lyse, usually rbc (erythocytes), release hemoglobin
vary in enzymatic properties,sensitivity to environmental changes, immunological traits, types of cells that they lyse, temperature
vary in enzymatic properties,sensitivity to environmental changes, immunological traits, types of cells that they lyse, temperature
question
Cytolytic Toxins
answer
similar to hemolysins, proteins produced by bacteria the kill animal cells, lyse rbc, immune cells
question
Extracellular Proteins
answer
proteins that are made in the bacterial cell and secreted into the surrounding medium
ex: hemolysins
ex: hemolysins
question
Exotoxins
answer
toxic proteins excreted by bacteria that enhance the virulence of many potentially pathogenic microbes
ex: hemolysins
ex: hemolysins
question
Strepolysin O (SLO)
answer
major hemolysin produced by S. pyogenes
host responds to SLO by producing antibodies that cause heart tissue damage
inactivated by oxygen
host responds to SLO by producing antibodies that cause heart tissue damage
inactivated by oxygen
question
Strepolysin S (SLS)
answer
major hemolysin produced by S. pyogenes
not inactivated by oxygen
not inactivated by oxygen
question
Capsule
answer
relatively thick layer of high molecular weight polysaccharides that surround the entire microbial cell, anti-phagocytic properties
ex: S. pneumoniae
ex: S. pneumoniae
question
Pigment
answer
color, can have virulence factors
question
Siderophore
answer
binds iron
question
Pyocyanin
answer
blue pigment found in Pseudomonas aeruginosa
stimulate the release of interleukin-8
stimulate the release of interleukin-8
question
Pyoverdin
answer
green fluorescent pigment found in Pseudomonas aeruginosa
siderophore that binds iron
siderophore that binds iron
question
Fluorescein
answer
same as pyoverdin
question
Pyorubin
answer
red pigment found in Pseudomonas aeruginosa
question
Pyomelanin
answer
brown pigment found in Pseudomonas aeruginosa
question
How do you perform a slide coagulase test?
answer
1. Transfer one drop of distilled water and add a small portion of microbe to the water and mix.
2. Transfer one drop of rabbit plasma to slide and add a small portion of microbe to the plasma and mix
INVALID: microbe clumps in water and rabbit plasma
POSITIVE: microbe clumps only in rabbit plasma
NEGATIVE: microbe does not clump in either, perform tube coagulase test to confirm
ex: (+)= S. aureus
(-) = S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus
2. Transfer one drop of rabbit plasma to slide and add a small portion of microbe to the plasma and mix
INVALID: microbe clumps in water and rabbit plasma
POSITIVE: microbe clumps only in rabbit plasma
NEGATIVE: microbe does not clump in either, perform tube coagulase test to confirm
ex: (+)= S. aureus
(-) = S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus
question
How do you perform a tube coagulase test?
answer
1. Transfer 2-3 colonies into the rabbit plasma tube
2. Cover and incubate
POSITIVE: clot formation, solid mass
NEGATIVE: liquidy, viscous
ex: (+) = S. aureus
(-) = S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus
2. Cover and incubate
POSITIVE: clot formation, solid mass
NEGATIVE: liquidy, viscous
ex: (+) = S. aureus
(-) = S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus
question
Compare and contrast streptolysin O and streptolysin O.
answer
similarities: SLO and SLS both are hemolysins in S. pyogenes, lyse blood cells, alter membrane permeability, disrupt sterols in the tissue cell membrane
differences: SLO- host responds by making antibodies that cause heart tissue damage, inactivated by oxygen
SLS- not inactivated by oxygen
differences: SLO- host responds by making antibodies that cause heart tissue damage, inactivated by oxygen
SLS- not inactivated by oxygen
question
What are the interpretations of a BAP?
answer
alpha: green halo, partial lysis of rbc via hemolysins, ex: Streptococcus pneumoniae
beta: tan halo, complete lysis of rbc via hemolysins, ex: Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae
gamma: no lysis of rbc via hemolysins
beta: tan halo, complete lysis of rbc via hemolysins, ex: Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae
gamma: no lysis of rbc via hemolysins
question
Why is BAP differential?
answer
Differential because growing in sheep's blood. Identifies streptococci via its hemolytic action on the red blood cells in the medium
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What is the function of the bacterial capsule as a virulence factor?
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The function of the capsule is to create anti-phagocytic properties where they evade immune responses because host cells don't recognize cell as foreign
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Compare and contrast virulence factors
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what are they made of, what they do, how do they evade the immune system
Coagulase: extracellular enzyme, avoids phagocytosis, convert fibronogen to fibrin to form around staphylococci lesion and cells
Hemolysins: extracellular proteins produced by bacteria that lyse animal cells, usually rbc, exotoxins, enhance virulence, produce antibodies and lysis of cells
Capsule: thick layer of polysaccharides surround whole cell, anti-phagocytic properties
Pigments: virulence factors like release of interleukin- 8 and siderophore to bind to iron, pyorubin, pyomelanin, pyocyanin, pyoverdin
Coagulase: extracellular enzyme, avoids phagocytosis, convert fibronogen to fibrin to form around staphylococci lesion and cells
Hemolysins: extracellular proteins produced by bacteria that lyse animal cells, usually rbc, exotoxins, enhance virulence, produce antibodies and lysis of cells
Capsule: thick layer of polysaccharides surround whole cell, anti-phagocytic properties
Pigments: virulence factors like release of interleukin- 8 and siderophore to bind to iron, pyorubin, pyomelanin, pyocyanin, pyoverdin
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What does a capsule look like under a microscope?
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Group A streptococci, Gram (+) cocci chains
BAP: beta hemolytic
virulence factors: streptolysin O and S- alter membrane permeability, damage sterols in tissues
cause strep throat, wound infections, kidney disease, rheumatic fever, flesh eating bacteria
BAP: beta hemolytic
virulence factors: streptolysin O and S- alter membrane permeability, damage sterols in tissues
cause strep throat, wound infections, kidney disease, rheumatic fever, flesh eating bacteria
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Streptococcus pyogenes
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Group B streptococci, Gram (+) cocci chains
Catalase: (-)
BAP: beta hemolytic
causes neonatal septicemia, form of meningitis
Catalase: (-)
BAP: beta hemolytic
causes neonatal septicemia, form of meningitis
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Streptococcus agalactiae
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Gram (+) cocci clusters
Catalase: (+)
Coagulase: (-)
usually on normal skin microflora
Catalase: (+)
Coagulase: (-)
usually on normal skin microflora
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Staphylococcus epidermidis
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Gram (+) cocci clusters
Catalase: (+)
Coagulase: (-)
causes UTIs
Catalase: (+)
Coagulase: (-)
causes UTIs
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Staphylococcus saprophyticus
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Group A streptococci, Gram (+) cocci chains
Catalase: (-)
BAP: Alpha hemolytic
normal throat flora, cause endocarditis, dental caries
Catalase: (-)
BAP: Alpha hemolytic
normal throat flora, cause endocarditis, dental caries
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Viridans Streptococcus
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capsule present outside bacterial cell
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Klebsiella oxytoca
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no pigment on TECH plate tube, still tan/ N/A color medium
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Pseudomonas putida
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How Does This Work?: ability of a microbe to clot plasma using coagulase, convert fibrinogen to fibrin, clumping factor, bound coagulase
Original Color of Medium: N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: differentiate within Staphylococcus, S. aureus from non-pathogenic staphylococcus
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: rabbit plasma
pH Indicator:N/A
Interpretation of Results:
invalid: microbe clumps in both water and rabbit plasma
positive: microbe clumps in rabbit plasma only
negative: microbe clumps in neither water nor rabbit plasma, perform tube coagulase test to confirm the lack of coagulase in microbe
Original Color of Medium: N/A
Microbes Selected For and Against: differentiate within Staphylococcus, S. aureus from non-pathogenic staphylococcus
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: rabbit plasma
pH Indicator:N/A
Interpretation of Results:
invalid: microbe clumps in both water and rabbit plasma
positive: microbe clumps in rabbit plasma only
negative: microbe clumps in neither water nor rabbit plasma, perform tube coagulase test to confirm the lack of coagulase in microbe
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Slide Coagulase Test
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How Does This Work?: ability of a microbe to clot plasma using coagulase, convert fibrinogen to fibrin, free coagulase
Original Color of Medium: clear liquid
Microbes Selected For and Against: differentiate within Staphylococcus, S. aureus from non-pathogenic h
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: Rabbit plasma
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
positive: solid formation in tube, clot formation
negative: liquidy and viscous
Original Color of Medium: clear liquid
Microbes Selected For and Against: differentiate within Staphylococcus, S. aureus from non-pathogenic h
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: Rabbit plasma
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
positive: solid formation in tube, clot formation
negative: liquidy and viscous
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Tube Coagulase Test
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How Does This Work?: grows pathogenic bacteria, should be compared to BAP plate
Original Color of Medium: brown, chocolate colored
Microbes Selected For and Against: grow fastidious, pathogenic strains of Gram (-) organisms ex: Neisseria and Haemophilus
Nutrients: hemoglobin (X factor), NAD+ (V factor), general nutritional medium
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
flat grey colonies- Haemophilus
pulvinate, convex tan colonies- Neisseria
Original Color of Medium: brown, chocolate colored
Microbes Selected For and Against: grow fastidious, pathogenic strains of Gram (-) organisms ex: Neisseria and Haemophilus
Nutrients: hemoglobin (X factor), NAD+ (V factor), general nutritional medium
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
flat grey colonies- Haemophilus
pulvinate, convex tan colonies- Neisseria
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Chocolate Agar Plate (CAP)
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How Does This Work?: enhances ability of Pseudomonas aeruginosa to produce pyocyanin, inhibits other pigments
Original Color of Medium: tan
Microbes Selected For and Against: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): Magnesium chloride, potassium sulfate, low levels of phosphate to inhibit fluorscein production
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
Positive: blue green color is seen in the medium surrounding colonies
Negative: no blue green color in medium is seen
may seen pyomelanin (brown, grayish with pyocyanin), or pyorubin (red, purpleish with pyocyanin)
Original Color of Medium: tan
Microbes Selected For and Against: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): Magnesium chloride, potassium sulfate, low levels of phosphate to inhibit fluorscein production
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
Positive: blue green color is seen in the medium surrounding colonies
Negative: no blue green color in medium is seen
may seen pyomelanin (brown, grayish with pyocyanin), or pyorubin (red, purpleish with pyocyanin)
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TECH Plates (Tubes)
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How Does This Work?:
Original Color of Medium:
Microbes Selected For and Against:
Nutrients: gelatin (movement with flagella), glucose (fermentable CHO for function of decarboxylate enzymes), ornithine (decarboxylate ornithine), tryptophan (production of indole via hydrolysis of tryptophan)
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): gelatin
Differential Agents: Tryptophan, add Kovac's reagent, ornithine
pH Indicator: bromcresol blue
Interpretation of Results:
Motility:
Positive: turbid, bottle brush pattern OR very turbid
Negative: clear tube, growth only on stabline
Indole:
Positive: Kovac turns cherry red
Negative: Kovac remains yellow-green
Ornithine:
Positive: bottom of MIO tube is purple
Negative: top of the tube is purple, bottom tube is yellow or entire tube is yellow
Original Color of Medium:
Microbes Selected For and Against:
Nutrients: gelatin (movement with flagella), glucose (fermentable CHO for function of decarboxylate enzymes), ornithine (decarboxylate ornithine), tryptophan (production of indole via hydrolysis of tryptophan)
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): gelatin
Differential Agents: Tryptophan, add Kovac's reagent, ornithine
pH Indicator: bromcresol blue
Interpretation of Results:
Motility:
Positive: turbid, bottle brush pattern OR very turbid
Negative: clear tube, growth only on stabline
Indole:
Positive: Kovac turns cherry red
Negative: Kovac remains yellow-green
Ornithine:
Positive: bottom of MIO tube is purple
Negative: top of the tube is purple, bottom tube is yellow or entire tube is yellow
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Motility Indole Ornithine Test (MIO)
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How Does This Work?: determines ability of microbe to hydrolyze glycoside and esculin to esculetin and glucose in the presence of bile, bile tolerance
Original Color of Medium: tan/beige/ N/A color
Microbes Selected For and Against: group D streptococci confirmation
Nutrients: glycoside, esculin
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
(NG/Unk): no growth is seen on streak line, reaction to esculin is unknown
(+/-): growth is seen, but medium is tan, no reaction to esculin
(+/+): growth is seen on streak, medium is brown/black
Original Color of Medium: tan/beige/ N/A color
Microbes Selected For and Against: group D streptococci confirmation
Nutrients: glycoside, esculin
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
(NG/Unk): no growth is seen on streak line, reaction to esculin is unknown
(+/-): growth is seen, but medium is tan, no reaction to esculin
(+/+): growth is seen on streak, medium is brown/black
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Bile Esculin
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How Does This Work?: compare at a 0.5 McFarland Standard, streak a MH plate, place a Novobiocin disk in the middle of the plate, zone of inhibition is measured
Original Color of Medium: red
Microbes Selected For and Against: differentiate between Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Staphylococcus epidermitidis
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): Novobiocin disk
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
S. saprophyticus- <16mm zone of inhibition, resistant to novobiocin
S. epidermitidis- >16 mm zone of inhibition, sensitive to novobiocin
Original Color of Medium: red
Microbes Selected For and Against: differentiate between Staphylococcus saprophyticus and Staphylococcus epidermitidis
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): Novobiocin disk
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
S. saprophyticus- <16mm zone of inhibition, resistant to novobiocin
S. epidermitidis- >16 mm zone of inhibition, sensitive to novobiocin
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Novobiocin
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How Does This Work?: if produces enzyme gelatinase
Original Color of Medium: N/A color
Microbes Selected For and Against: microbes that have gelatinase enzyme
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): gelatin
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
Weak Positive: test tube liquefies and doesn't completely resolidify
Positive: test tube liquefies and remains a liquid
Negative: test tube liquefies and resolidifies
inoculate by melting media and then inoculate via loop
Original Color of Medium: N/A color
Microbes Selected For and Against: microbes that have gelatinase enzyme
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): gelatin
Differential Agents: N/A
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
Weak Positive: test tube liquefies and doesn't completely resolidify
Positive: test tube liquefies and remains a liquid
Negative: test tube liquefies and resolidifies
inoculate by melting media and then inoculate via loop
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Gelatin
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How Does This Work?: add latex/ antisera to heavily inoculated drop, look for agglutination
Original Color of Medium: blue from latex/antisera
Microbes Selected For and Against: distinguish between A, B, C, D, F, G streptococci
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: latex/antisera
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
Positive: Agglutination occurs, antigen corresponding with antisera
Negative: no agglutination occurs, microbe doesn't have antigen corresponding with antisera
Original Color of Medium: blue from latex/antisera
Microbes Selected For and Against: distinguish between A, B, C, D, F, G streptococci
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: latex/antisera
pH Indicator: N/A
Interpretation of Results:
Positive: Agglutination occurs, antigen corresponding with antisera
Negative: no agglutination occurs, microbe doesn't have antigen corresponding with antisera
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Streptex/ Slidex
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How Does This Work?: determine if microbe is able to utilize carbon of sodium citrate as sole source of carbon for metabolism
Original Color of Medium: green
Microbes Selected For and Against: differentiation of Gram (-) rods
Nutrients: inorganic ammonium salts for nitrate sole source
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: sodium citrate and ammonium salts
pH Indicator: bromthymol blue
Interpretation of Results:
positive: growth is seen, color is noted as blue but not needed
negative: no growth is seen, may be green still but color is not as important
blue: alkalinity products of carbonates and ammonia because sole nitrate and carbon sources
Original Color of Medium: green
Microbes Selected For and Against: differentiation of Gram (-) rods
Nutrients: inorganic ammonium salts for nitrate sole source
Selective Agents (Inhibitors): N/A
Differential Agents: sodium citrate and ammonium salts
pH Indicator: bromthymol blue
Interpretation of Results:
positive: growth is seen, color is noted as blue but not needed
negative: no growth is seen, may be green still but color is not as important
blue: alkalinity products of carbonates and ammonia because sole nitrate and carbon sources
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Citrate Slant
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filamentous fungi, multicellular microbes, tend to form loose, fluffy colonies with aerial hyphae
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Molds
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filaments that make up fungal growth can be septate with cross walls or aseptate with no cross walls
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Hyphae
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long filaments which extend up into the air above the agar surface, differentiate into conidia or spore
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Aerial Hyphae
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unicellular microbes that form compact colonies resembling bacterial growth, do not form true hyphae
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Yeast
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fungi exist in only one form, monomorphic yeast or mold
ex: Cryptococcus neoformans- monomorphic yeast
ex: Aspergillus sp., Rhizopus sp., Penicillium sp., exist in filamentous form- monomorphic molds
ex: Cryptococcus neoformans- monomorphic yeast
ex: Aspergillus sp., Rhizopus sp., Penicillium sp., exist in filamentous form- monomorphic molds
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Monomorphic
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ex: Penicillium marneffei- grows in mold form in the environment and converts to a yeast form when infecting a human host, causes pneumonia
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Dimorphic
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ex: Candida albicans- grows in a variety of forms like buds (blastoconidia), pseudohyphae
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Polymorphic
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buds, conidia formed by the budding process
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Blastoconidia
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elongated blasoconidia and hyphae, elongated buds/blastoconidia
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Pseudohyphae
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hyphae, asexual spores of filamentous fungi as borne on conidiophores
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Conidia
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hyphae
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Spores
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producing structures of conidia
can be branched or unbranched
can be branched or unbranched
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Conidiophore
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producing structures of spores, the stalk
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Sporangiophore
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sac like, mushroom top structure in rhizopus at the end of sporangiophores
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Sporangium
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the spores within the sporangium
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Sporangiospores
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reproductive structures, on aerial hyphae, asexual fruiting bodies
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Fruiting Bodies
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small, single celled conidia
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Microconidia
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large, multi celled conidia
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Macroconidia
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Candida albicans forms a biofilm over surfaces of involved tissues in candidiasis
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Biofilm
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1. Insert needles into sand and vesphene
2. cut a portion of growth and add to slide
3. drop of Lactophenol Cotton Blue
4. tease the colony fragment, place a coverslip over it and seal with clear nail polish
2. cut a portion of growth and add to slide
3. drop of Lactophenol Cotton Blue
4. tease the colony fragment, place a coverslip over it and seal with clear nail polish
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Tease Mount
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1. place LPCB onto a slide
2. take a piece of scotch tape and press firmly onto surface growth of the fungi
3. pull off, tape to slide with LPCB
2. take a piece of scotch tape and press firmly onto surface growth of the fungi
3. pull off, tape to slide with LPCB
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Scotch Tape Mount
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1. cut a piece of agar and put onto the glass slide in the petri dish
2. pick out a colony of mold from surface of agar and aerial hyphae
3. heat the coverslip and place on the agar surface until hear a sizzle noise
4. a little bit of water on the bottom of the petri dish
2. pick out a colony of mold from surface of agar and aerial hyphae
3. heat the coverslip and place on the agar surface until hear a sizzle noise
4. a little bit of water on the bottom of the petri dish
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Slide Culture
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Lactophenol Cotton Blue, used to kill fungal cells but keeps them in their same spatial arrangement, stains chitin in cell walls to better see the fungus
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LPCB
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a new daughter cell is produced as an outgrowth of the parent cell to create blastoconidia
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Budding
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hyphal extension produced from yeast cells upon germination, tube like projection, used to identify Candida albicans
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Germ Tube
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surface pigmentation of a fungi
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Surface Pigmentation
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udnerneath the plate pigmentation of the fungi
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Reverse Pigmentation
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Advantages: can get fruiting bodies and aerial hyphae, inexpensive, quicker
Disadvantages: harder to recognize spatial arrangement
Disadvantages: harder to recognize spatial arrangement
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What are the advantages and disadvantages of the tease mount procedure?
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Advantages: quick, easy, inexpensive
Disadvantages: only get aerial hyphae
Disadvantages: only get aerial hyphae
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What are the advantages and disadvantages of the scotch tape procedure?
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Advantages: see all parts of the fungi, top and bottom
Disadvantages: expensive and time consuming
Disadvantages: expensive and time consuming
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What are the advantages and disadvantages of the slide culture?
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white stalks with green head, lollipop, won't fill the whole plate
conidiophore looks like a q-tip, unbranched conidia, septate hyphae
conidiophore looks like a q-tip, unbranched conidia, septate hyphae
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Aspergillus sp.
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green velvet appearance, no stalks, light green, distinct border, won't fill the plate, yellow water soluble pigment
conidia are branched, look like skeleton hands, septate hyphae
conidia are branched, look like skeleton hands, septate hyphae
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Penicillium sp.
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large filaments, fill the whole plate with aerial hyphae, produce black around the outer edge of the plate, which are the fruiting bodies
is a sporangiophore, spore inside little sporangiospore cap, has rhizoid, root-like structures, aseptate hyphae
is a sporangiophore, spore inside little sporangiospore cap, has rhizoid, root-like structures, aseptate hyphae
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Rhizopus sp.
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look like a turnip, with septate hyphae
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Microsporum canis
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reproduce by budding and will not produce germ tubes
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Saccharomyces cerevisiae
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its dimorphic, meaning it can change its form depending on the growth or environmental conditions
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What is the significance of a budded to hyphal transition trait in yeast form?
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streak heavily for confluency to starve microbes leading to the production of endospores, general nutritional growth
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TSA Endospore Production
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X pattern, waves of growth over entire surface of the plate
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TSA Swarming Ability
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