This part of your examination is worth 100 points AND consists of 100 Multiple Choice questions
Top of Form
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber?
A. Dissolves in stomach fluids
B. Is not a source of calories
C. Speeds up the movement of waste
D. Provides bulk for stool formation
2. Muscle cells serve as a reservoir for which of the following?
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Galactose
D. Raffinose
3. What effect do foods with a high glycemic index have on the body?
A. Increase fructose
B. Decrease water
C. Increase insulin
D. Decrease ghrelin
4. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?
A. Mannose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Cellulose
5. Which of the following is a simple sugar?
A. Oligosaccharides
B. Polysaccharides
C. Fructose
D. Glycogen
6. What is the recommended daily allowance of protein for a female client who is 30 years of age?
A. 2
4
B. 3
4
C. 4
6
D. 56
7. Which of the following food sources provides the highest amount of protein per 100-gram serving?
A. Hardboiled egg
B. Plain yogurt
C. Peanut butter
D. Beef sirloin
8. What part of the digestive system releases pepsin?
A. The mouth
B. The stomach
C. The large intestine
D. The small intestine
9. What effect does dietary protein have on the body?
A. Increases fructose
B. Decreases water
C. Increases insulin
D. Decreases ghrelin
10. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Tyrosine
D. Glutamine
11. How much of the adult human body is composed of water?
A. 1
0-20%
B. 30-40%
C. 50-60%
D. 80-90%
12. How many liters of water does the European Food Safety Authority recommend daily for men?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
13. Which of these urinary hydration biomarkers provides the best index of day to day hydration?
A. Urine color
B. Urine concentration
C. Plasma osmolality
D. Plasma volume
14. What hormone is primarily responsible for water reabsorption at the level of the kidney?
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin
C. Aldosterone
D. Arginine vasopressin
15. A diuretic effect has been observed when caffeine consumption exceeds how many milligrams per kilogram of body weight?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
16. Of the following types of exercise, which promotes a higher bone density when performed consistently?
A. Water aerobics
B. Lap swimming
C. Barbell training
D. Outdoor cycling
17. Minerals such as calcium function as a
A. phospholipid transporter.
B. fat metabolizer.
C. metalloenzyme.
D. enzyme cofactor.
18. Which mineral has been linked to dietary supplements for fat loss and muscle gain?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
19. Which mineral is known widely for its role in oral health?
A. Boron
B. Calcium
C. Fluoride
D. Molybdenum
20. Boron and molybdenum are essential nutrients classified as
A. cofactors.
B. antioxidants.
C. major minerals.
D. trace minerals.
21. Cholesterol is needed for the synthesis of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin D.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin K.
22. Which of the following is a precursor to vitamin D?
A. Choline
B. Lecithin
C. Cholesterol
D. Chylomicrons
23. Phospholipids are an important structural component of
A. the brain.
B. the liver.
C. muscles.
D. bones.
24. Consumption of trans fats can increase which of the following?
A. LDL
B. DHA
C. CLA
D. MCT
25. Which best illustrates the chronological order of the digestion of fat?
A. Pancreatic lipase, emulsification, micelles, blood, lymph
B. Pancreatic lipase, lymph, micelles, emulsification, blood
C. Lingual lipase, emulsification, micelles, lymph, blood
D. Lingual lipase, micelles, emulsification, lymph, blood
26. What vitamin is neither fat nor water-soluble?
A. Choline
B. Cobalamin
C. Folic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
27. The absorption of vitamin D can be improved when it is packaged in a formulation that is
A. water based.
B. oil based.
C. fiber based.
D. protein based.
28. A deficiency in what type of vitamin presents itself through symptoms of night blindness?
A. Cobalamin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Beta-carotene
D. Alpha-tocopherol
29. Which of the following foods is a dietary source of vitamin B12?
A. Egg
s
B. Beans
C. Spinach
D. Rice
30. Which of the following is a dietary source of vitamin C?
A. Organ meats
B. Collard greens
C. Wheat germ
D. Dairy products
31. Within a cell membrane, which of the following attaches directly to the lipid bilayer?
A. Glycolipids
B. Glycoproteins
C. Phospholipids
D. Carbohydrate chain
32. A bundle of 70-100, mostly undifferentiated human cells is a
A. axon.
B. neuron.
C. blastocyst.
D. chondrocyte
33. The process of replacing epithelial cells to maintain a protective barrier, is known as
A. sluffing.
B. shedding.
C. epidermization.
D. epithelialization.
34. Which type of muscle is responsible for involuntary muscle contraction in the organ systems?
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Striated muscle
35. Which organ system protects the body and is composed of skin, hair, and nails?
A. Nervous system
B. Endocrine system
C. Lymphatic system
D. Integumentary system
36. The energy released as the bonds that hold chemicals together are broken, is known as
A. caloric energy.
B. thermal energy.
C. chemical energy.
D. exothermic energy.
37. The energy expenditure associated with food digestion and absorption is the
A. basal metabolic rate (BMR).
B. thermic effect of food (TEF).
C. resting metabolic rate (RMR).
D. respiratory exchange ratio (RER).
38. Which of the following is an enzyme required by the process of rephosphorylation, to create ATP?
A. ADPase
B. ATPase
C. Polymerase
D. ATP Synthase
39. What three-carbon structure is formed by splitting a glucose molecule?
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactic acid
C. Creatine kinase
D. Phosphocreatine
40. How many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of fatty acids?
A. 22
B. 30 – 32
C. 44
D. 106
41. In which states is it legal for anyone to share nutrition education through materials originating from a public or well-known entity such as the American Heart Association, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and the American College of Nutrition?
A. Maryland and Utah
B. Arizona and Michigan
C. Florida and Wisconsin
D. California and New Mexico
42. Goals that are aligned with a client’s values, beliefs, and motivations are known as
A. SMART goals.
B. relevant goals.
C. topic-focused goals.
D. client-appropriate goals.
43. Within the SMART goals acronym, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Realistic
B. Recurring
C. Reachable
D. Reproducible
44. What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?
A. Health Insurance Professional Accountability Act
B. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
C. Health Information Professional Accountability Act
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
45. Individuals licensed as nutritional consultants
A. specialize in athletic settings such as fitness centers, gyms, and sports-medicine clinics.
B. work in medical facilities and institutions, planning meals and consulting on dietary needs.
C. are specifically trained to provide medical nutrition therapy in settings such as hospitals and long-term care facilities.
D. work in private practice and provide nutritional information through counseling, educational seminars, and working with corporations.
46. Which of the following can provide valuable insight to a nutrition coach, when attempting to establish motivation?
A. Food logs
B. Open-ended questions
C. Incentives and penalties
D. Before and after photos
47. The state of having complete understanding and knowledge of a subject or situation is referred to as
A. mastery.
B. autonomy.
C. knowledge.
D. understanding.
48. What is the goal of uncovering ambivalence?
A. To produce dialogue
B. To listen, rather than tell
C. To communicate respect for and acceptance of clients and their feelings
D. To create a discrepancy between what a person is currently doing, and where they would like to be
49. What is a good strategy to use when a client denies personal problems?
A. Reframing
B. Shifting focus
C. Amplified reflection
D. Agreement with a twist
50. What kind of questioning can help increase awareness of a client’s current level of motivation to change?
A. Closed questions
B. Scaling questions
C. Funneling questions
D. Convergent questions
51. Which of the following is a component of a physical assessment?
A. Weight
B. Initial goals
C. Client’s address
D. Emergency contact information
52. A goal of drinking only one cup of coffee per day is considered a
A. health goal.
B. medical goal.
C. physical goal.
D. behavior goal.
53. Even after cessation of a client’s program, it is recommended a coach maintain records for up to
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. three years.
D. four years.
54. Which of the seven goal-setting steps is the most important?
A. Acting
B. Establishing a timeline
C. Writing the goal(s) down
D. Determining the desired result
55. What does PARQ+ stand for?
A. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
B. Personal Activity Recommendation Quotient
C. Physical Assessment Recommendation Quotient
D. Personal Achievement Reevaluation Questionnaire
56. Which of the following is key for consistent marketing and branding?
A. An online presence
B. A focused business message
C. A professionally designed website
D. A well-designed, professional logo
57. Which type of business plan is used primarily for the owner and other employees to organize the structure, finances, and plans for future growth?
A. Lean business plan
B. Internal business plan
C. Traditional business plan
D. Highly detailed business plan
58. In sales, objections are
A. always bad.
B. considered “the nail in the coffin”.
C. a chance to earn a customer’s trust.
D. a sure sign the customer will not purchase.
59. What is the final stage in gaining a new client?
A. Evaluation
B. Programming
C. Closing the sale
D. Establishing goals
60. What is the first step of the Perfect Customer Life Cycle?
A. Awareness
B. Preparation
C. Contemplation
D. Pre-contemplation
61. Which of the following agencies create and update the Dietary Guidelines for Americans publication?
A. National Nutrition Agency (NNA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. Infant and Family Nutrition Agency (IFNA)
D. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
62. Which of the following is the current visual nutrition guide published by the USDA Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion?
A. MyPlate
B. MyPyramid
C. The Food Guide Pyramid
D. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
63. Nutrient density is usually measured per
A. 10 kilocalories.
B. 20 kilocalories.
C. 50 kilocalories.
D. 100 kilocalories.
64. What percentage of daily calories should the consumption of added sugars be limited to?
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
65. The recommended daily intake of sodium for people 14 years of age and older, is referred to as the
A. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
B. Permissible Consumption Limit
C. Adult Macronutrient Daily Requirement
D. Maximum Mineral Consumption Level
66. Abnormal or disturbed eating habits (once diagnosed) such as anorexia or binge-eating, are referred to as
A. emotional eating.
B. disordered eating.
C. an eating disorder.
D. psychological eating.
67. Which of the following questions is included in the SCOFF Questionnaire?
A. Do you desire to lose weight?
B. Has food ever made you sick?
C. Do you have any food allergies?
D. Would you say food dominates your life?
68. A person who is morbidly obese typically has a body mass index (BMI) of
A. at least 25.
B. at least 29.
C. 29 or higher.
D. 35 or higher.
69. One common cause of andropause is a deficiency of
A. zinc.
B. estrogen.
C. pregnenolone.
D. dihydrotestosterone.
70. Which of the following has been found to have a great effect on hormones and can affect the functioning of the body?
A. Sun exposure
B. Alcohol consumption
C. Use of a microwave oven
D. Consuming animal products
71. Which of the following is absorbed quicker into the body?
A. Caplets
B. Coated tablets
C. Uncoated tablets
D. Liquid-filled capsules
72. Which protein source contains lactose?
A. Egg
B. Pea
C. Soy
D. Casein
73. In what year was an official definition given to dietary supplements?
A. 1702
B. 1864
C. 1939
D. 1994
74. There are three common forms of commercially available supplemental protein: protein concentrates, protein isolates, and protein
A. flavanols.
B. flavonoids.
C. phosphates.
D. hydrolysates.
75. Which of the following is a mineralocorticosteroid?
A. Winstrol
B. Vasopressin
C. Testosterone
D. Deca-Durabolin
76. The principal display panel (PDP) front packaging must contain which of the following?
A. Serving size
B. Calories per serving
C. Macronutrient distribution
D. Claims and product features
77. Packages that are between one and two servings are required to label the calories and other nutrients
A. as one serving.
B. as two servings.
C. “per package”.
D. per 100 grams.
78. An unsaturated fatty acid resulting from hydrogenation is known as
A. trans fat.
B. alpha lipoic acid.
C. alpha linolenic acid.
D. eicosapentaenoic acid.
79. Which of the following is true regarding vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin C deficiency is now common.
B. Vitamin A deficiency is now common.
C. Americans lack sodium on a regular basis.
D. Americans lack potassium on a regular basis.
80. With regard to nutrient content claims, what does the acronym RACC stand for?
A. Registered Allowable Calories Consumed
B. Reference Amounts of Calories Consumed
C. Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed
D. Required Amounts Consumed by Customers
81. Which of the following diets does not allow for the consumption of any meat, poultry, fish, or eggs, but does include dairy?
A. Vegan
B. Pescatarian
C. Mediterranean
D. Lacto-vegetarian
82. While on the 5/2 intermittent fasting diet, the idea is to consume what percent (or less) of a normal day’s calories?
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 30 percent
83. What foods are avoided on the carnivore diet?
A. Poultry and dairy
B. Fin-fish and shellfish
C. Meats, eggs, and poultry
D. Dairy, low lactose foods, nuts, fruits, and grains
84. Gluten is a mix of proteins found in
A. soy and corn.
B. seeds and nuts.
C. wheat, rye, and barley.
D. sugar, beans, and dairy.
85. Carb cycling (high/low carb) is often used for what purpose?
A. Fast weight loss
B. Fast weight gain
C. Reduce A1C levels
D. Reduce blood pressure
86. Functional foods are divided into four categories: modified foods, conventional foods, medical foods, and
A. clinical foods.
B. special dietary foods.
C. unconventional foods.
D. non-genetically modified foods.
87. What is the most influential sense when consuming food?
A. Feel
B. Sight
C. Smell
D. Taste
88. While the amount diminishes over time, how many taste buds does every human have?
A. Between 1,000 and 2,000
B. Approximately 3,000
C. Between 9,000 and 10,000
D. Approximately 100,000
89. Small, vaporized molecules of food, detected by the human nose, are called
A. villus.
B. odor molecules.
C. volatile molecules.
D. olfactory molecules.
90. The 16/8 diet involves abstaining from food for:
A. 8 hours per day
B. 16 hours per day
C. 8 days per month
D. 16 days per month
91. What does the MyPlate tool use to represent how much the average American should consume?
A. Calories
B. Serving size
C. Food source
D. Servings per day
92. Diarrhea is a potential side effect of which botanical supplement?
A. Ginseng
B. Echinacea
C. Saw palmetto
D. Ginkgo biloba
93. High biological value proteins are classified as
A. complete proteins.
B. plant-based proteins.
C. essential amino acids.
D. free-form amino acids.
94. What term describes urban areas where it is difficult to afford or find quality whole foods?
A. Food deserts
B. Nutrient deficient zones
C. Poor consumption regions
D. Geographically food deficient
95. Which of the following is low in a client with hypoglycemia?
A. Low calcium
B. Low potassium
C. Low blood sugar
D. Low blood pressure
96. The most effective fuel source for producing ATP is
A. protein.
B. lactate.
C. glycogen.
D. fatty acid.
97. The main process in which heat is dissipated from the human body is
A. radiation.
B. convection.
C. conduction.
D. evaporation.
98. The three classifications of epithelial cells are: cuboidal, columnar, and
A. cylindrical.
B. epidermal.
C. pyramidal.
D. squamous.
99. The mineral category of electrolytes includes sodium, chloride, and
A. iodine.
B. calcium.
C. potassium.
D. magnesium.
100. Which of the following is a marketing statement that demands an immediate response from a recipient?
A. Banner ad
B. Advertorial
C. Call to action
D. Selling proposition
Bottom of Form
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This part of your examination is worth 100 points AND consists of 100 Multiple Choice questions
Top of Form
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber?
A. Dissolves in stomach fluids
B. Is not a source of calories
C. Speeds up the movement of waste
D. Provides bulk for stool formation
2. Muscle cells serve as a reservoir for which of the following?
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Galactose
D. Raffinose
3. What effect do foods with a high glycemic index have on the body?
A. Increase fructose
B. Decrease water
C. Increase insulin
D. Decrease ghrelin
4. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?
A. Mannose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Cellulose
5. Which of the following is a simple sugar?
A. Oligosaccharides
B. Polysaccharides
C. Fructose
D. Glycogen
6. What is the recommended daily allowance of protein for a female client who is 30 years of age?
A. 2
4
B. 3
4
C. 4
6
D. 56
7. Which of the following food sources provides the highest amount of protein per 100-gram serving?
A. Hardboiled egg
B. Plain yogurt
C. Peanut butter
D. Beef sirloin
8. What part of the digestive system releases pepsin?
A. The mouth
B. The stomach
C. The large intestine
D. The small intestine
9. What effect does dietary protein have on the body?
A. Increases fructose
B. Decreases water
C. Increases insulin
D. Decreases ghrelin
10. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Tyrosine
D. Glutamine
11. How much of the adult human body is composed of water?
A. 1
0-20%
B. 30-40%
C. 50-60%
D. 80-90%
12. How many liters of water does the European Food Safety Authority recommend daily for men?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
13. Which of these urinary hydration biomarkers provides the best index of day to day hydration?
A. Urine color
B. Urine concentration
C. Plasma osmolality
D. Plasma volume
14. What hormone is primarily responsible for water reabsorption at the level of the kidney?
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin
C. Aldosterone
D. Arginine vasopressin
15. A diuretic effect has been observed when caffeine consumption exceeds how many milligrams per kilogram of body weight?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
16. Of the following types of exercise, which promotes a higher bone density when performed consistently?
A. Water aerobics
B. Lap swimming
C. Barbell training
D. Outdoor cycling
17. Minerals such as calcium function as a
A. phospholipid transporter.
B. fat metabolizer.
C. metalloenzyme.
D. enzyme cofactor.
18. Which mineral has been linked to dietary supplements for fat loss and muscle gain?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
19. Which mineral is known widely for its role in oral health?
A. Boron
B. Calcium
C. Fluoride
D. Molybdenum
20. Boron and molybdenum are essential nutrients classified as
A. cofactors.
B. antioxidants.
C. major minerals.
D. trace minerals.
21. Cholesterol is needed for the synthesis of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin D.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin K.
22. Which of the following is a precursor to vitamin D?
A. Choline
B. Lecithin
C. Cholesterol
D. Chylomicrons
23. Phospholipids are an important structural component of
A. the brain.
B. the liver.
C. muscles.
D. bones.
24. Consumption of trans fats can increase which of the following?
A. LDL
B. DHA
C. CLA
D. MCT
25. Which best illustrates the chronological order of the digestion of fat?
A. Pancreatic lipase, emulsification, micelles, blood, lymph
B. Pancreatic lipase, lymph, micelles, emulsification, blood
C. Lingual lipase, emulsification, micelles, lymph, blood
D. Lingual lipase, micelles, emulsification, lymph, blood
26. What vitamin is neither fat nor water-soluble?
A. Choline
B. Cobalamin
C. Folic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
27. The absorption of vitamin D can be improved when it is packaged in a formulation that is
A. water based.
B. oil based.
C. fiber based.
D. protein based.
28. A deficiency in what type of vitamin presents itself through symptoms of night blindness?
A. Cobalamin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Beta-carotene
D. Alpha-tocopherol
29. Which of the following foods is a dietary source of vitamin B12?
A. Egg
s
B. Beans
C. Spinach
D. Rice
30. Which of the following is a dietary source of vitamin C?
A. Organ meats
B. Collard greens
C. Wheat germ
D. Dairy products
31. Within a cell membrane, which of the following attaches directly to the lipid bilayer?
A. Glycolipids
B. Glycoproteins
C. Phospholipids
D. Carbohydrate chain
32. A bundle of 70-100, mostly undifferentiated human cells is a
A. axon.
B. neuron.
C. blastocyst.
D. chondrocyte
33. The process of replacing epithelial cells to maintain a protective barrier, is known as
A. sluffing.
B. shedding.
C. epidermization.
D. epithelialization.
34. Which type of muscle is responsible for involuntary muscle contraction in the organ systems?
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Striated muscle
35. Which organ system protects the body and is composed of skin, hair, and nails?
A. Nervous system
B. Endocrine system
C. Lymphatic system
D. Integumentary system
36. The energy released as the bonds that hold chemicals together are broken, is known as
A. caloric energy.
B. thermal energy.
C. chemical energy.
D. exothermic energy.
37. The energy expenditure associated with food digestion and absorption is the
A. basal metabolic rate (BMR).
B. thermic effect of food (TEF).
C. resting metabolic rate (RMR).
D. respiratory exchange ratio (RER).
38. Which of the following is an enzyme required by the process of rephosphorylation, to create ATP?
A. ADPase
B. ATPase
C. Polymerase
D. ATP Synthase
39. What three-carbon structure is formed by splitting a glucose molecule?
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactic acid
C. Creatine kinase
D. Phosphocreatine
40. How many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of fatty acids?
A. 22
B. 30 – 32
C. 44
D. 106
41. In which states is it legal for anyone to share nutrition education through materials originating from a public or well-known entity such as the American Heart Association, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and the American College of Nutrition?
A. Maryland and Utah
B. Arizona and Michigan
C. Florida and Wisconsin
D. California and New Mexico
42. Goals that are aligned with a client’s values, beliefs, and motivations are known as
A. SMART goals.
B. relevant goals.
C. topic-focused goals.
D. client-appropriate goals.
43. Within the SMART goals acronym, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Realistic
B. Recurring
C. Reachable
D. Reproducible
44. What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?
A. Health Insurance Professional Accountability Act
B. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
C. Health Information Professional Accountability Act
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
45. Individuals licensed as nutritional consultants
A. specialize in athletic settings such as fitness centers, gyms, and sports-medicine clinics.
B. work in medical facilities and institutions, planning meals and consulting on dietary needs.
C. are specifically trained to provide medical nutrition therapy in settings such as hospitals and long-term care facilities.
D. work in private practice and provide nutritional information through counseling, educational seminars, and working with corporations.
46. Which of the following can provide valuable insight to a nutrition coach, when attempting to establish motivation?
A. Food logs
B. Open-ended questions
C. Incentives and penalties
D. Before and after photos
47. The state of having complete understanding and knowledge of a subject or situation is referred to as
A. mastery.
B. autonomy.
C. knowledge.
D. understanding.
48. What is the goal of uncovering ambivalence?
A. To produce dialogue
B. To listen, rather than tell
C. To communicate respect for and acceptance of clients and their feelings
D. To create a discrepancy between what a person is currently doing, and where they would like to be
49. What is a good strategy to use when a client denies personal problems?
A. Reframing
B. Shifting focus
C. Amplified reflection
D. Agreement with a twist
50. What kind of questioning can help increase awareness of a client’s current level of motivation to change?
A. Closed questions
B. Scaling questions
C. Funneling questions
D. Convergent questions
51. Which of the following is a component of a physical assessment?
A. Weight
B. Initial goals
C. Client’s address
D. Emergency contact information
52. A goal of drinking only one cup of coffee per day is considered a
A. health goal.
B. medical goal.
C. physical goal.
D. behavior goal.
53. Even after cessation of a client’s program, it is recommended a coach maintain records for up to
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. three years.
D. four years.
54. Which of the seven goal-setting steps is the most important?
A. Acting
B. Establishing a timeline
C. Writing the goal(s) down
D. Determining the desired result
55. What does PARQ+ stand for?
A. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
B. Personal Activity Recommendation Quotient
C. Physical Assessment Recommendation Quotient
D. Personal Achievement Reevaluation Questionnaire
56. Which of the following is key for consistent marketing and branding?
A. An online presence
B. A focused business message
C. A professionally designed website
D. A well-designed, professional logo
57. Which type of business plan is used primarily for the owner and other employees to organize the structure, finances, and plans for future growth?
A. Lean business plan
B. Internal business plan
C. Traditional business plan
D. Highly detailed business plan
58. In sales, objections are
A. always bad.
B. considered “the nail in the coffin”.
C. a chance to earn a customer’s trust.
D. a sure sign the customer will not purchase.
59. What is the final stage in gaining a new client?
A. Evaluation
B. Programming
C. Closing the sale
D. Establishing goals
60. What is the first step of the Perfect Customer Life Cycle?
A. Awareness
B. Preparation
C. Contemplation
D. Pre-contemplation
61. Which of the following agencies create and update the Dietary Guidelines for Americans publication?
A. National Nutrition Agency (NNA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. Infant and Family Nutrition Agency (IFNA)
D. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
62. Which of the following is the current visual nutrition guide published by the USDA Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion?
A. MyPlate
B. MyPyramid
C. The Food Guide Pyramid
D. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
63. Nutrient density is usually measured per
A. 10 kilocalories.
B. 20 kilocalories.
C. 50 kilocalories.
D. 100 kilocalories.
64. What percentage of daily calories should the consumption of added sugars be limited to?
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
65. The recommended daily intake of sodium for people 14 years of age and older, is referred to as the
A. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
B. Permissible Consumption Limit
C. Adult Macronutrient Daily Requirement
D. Maximum Mineral Consumption Level
66. Abnormal or disturbed eating habits (once diagnosed) such as anorexia or binge-eating, are referred to as
A. emotional eating.
B. disordered eating.
C. an eating disorder.
D. psychological eating.
67. Which of the following questions is included in the SCOFF Questionnaire?
A. Do you desire to lose weight?
B. Has food ever made you sick?
C. Do you have any food allergies?
D. Would you say food dominates your life?
68. A person who is morbidly obese typically has a body mass index (BMI) of
A. at least 25.
B. at least 29.
C. 29 or higher.
D. 35 or higher.
69. One common cause of andropause is a deficiency of
A. zinc.
B. estrogen.
C. pregnenolone.
D. dihydrotestosterone.
70. Which of the following has been found to have a great effect on hormones and can affect the functioning of the body?
A. Sun exposure
B. Alcohol consumption
C. Use of a microwave oven
D. Consuming animal products
71. Which of the following is absorbed quicker into the body?
A. Caplets
B. Coated tablets
C. Uncoated tablets
D. Liquid-filled capsules
72. Which protein source contains lactose?
A. Egg
B. Pea
C. Soy
D. Casein
73. In what year was an official definition given to dietary supplements?
A. 1702
B. 1864
C. 1939
D. 1994
74. There are three common forms of commercially available supplemental protein: protein concentrates, protein isolates, and protein
A. flavanols.
B. flavonoids.
C. phosphates.
D. hydrolysates.
75. Which of the following is a mineralocorticosteroid?
A. Winstrol
B. Vasopressin
C. Testosterone
D. Deca-Durabolin
76. The principal display panel (PDP) front packaging must contain which of the following?
A. Serving size
B. Calories per serving
C. Macronutrient distribution
D. Claims and product features
77. Packages that are between one and two servings are required to label the calories and other nutrients
A. as one serving.
B. as two servings.
C. “per package”.
D. per 100 grams.
78. An unsaturated fatty acid resulting from hydrogenation is known as
A. trans fat.
B. alpha lipoic acid.
C. alpha linolenic acid.
D. eicosapentaenoic acid.
79. Which of the following is true regarding vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin C deficiency is now common.
B. Vitamin A deficiency is now common.
C. Americans lack sodium on a regular basis.
D. Americans lack potassium on a regular basis.
80. With regard to nutrient content claims, what does the acronym RACC stand for?
A. Registered Allowable Calories Consumed
B. Reference Amounts of Calories Consumed
C. Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed
D. Required Amounts Consumed by Customers
81. Which of the following diets does not allow for the consumption of any meat, poultry, fish, or eggs, but does include dairy?
A. Vegan
B. Pescatarian
C. Mediterranean
D. Lacto-vegetarian
82. While on the 5/2 intermittent fasting diet, the idea is to consume what percent (or less) of a normal day’s calories?
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 30 percent
83. What foods are avoided on the carnivore diet?
A. Poultry and dairy
B. Fin-fish and shellfish
C. Meats, eggs, and poultry
D. Dairy, low lactose foods, nuts, fruits, and grains
84. Gluten is a mix of proteins found in
A. soy and corn.
B. seeds and nuts.
C. wheat, rye, and barley.
D. sugar, beans, and dairy.
85. Carb cycling (high/low carb) is often used for what purpose?
A. Fast weight loss
B. Fast weight gain
C. Reduce A1C levels
D. Reduce blood pressure
86. Functional foods are divided into four categories: modified foods, conventional foods, medical foods, and
A. clinical foods.
B. special dietary foods.
C. unconventional foods.
D. non-genetically modified foods.
87. What is the most influential sense when consuming food?
A. Feel
B. Sight
C. Smell
D. Taste
88. While the amount diminishes over time, how many taste buds does every human have?
A. Between 1,000 and 2,000
B. Approximately 3,000
C. Between 9,000 and 10,000
D. Approximately 100,000
89. Small, vaporized molecules of food, detected by the human nose, are called
A. villus.
B. odor molecules.
C. volatile molecules.
D. olfactory molecules.
90. The 16/8 diet involves abstaining from food for:
A. 8 hours per day
B. 16 hours per day
C. 8 days per month
D. 16 days per month
91. What does the MyPlate tool use to represent how much the average American should consume?
A. Calories
B. Serving size
C. Food source
D. Servings per day
92. Diarrhea is a potential side effect of which botanical supplement?
A. Ginseng
B. Echinacea
C. Saw palmetto
D. Ginkgo biloba
93. High biological value proteins are classified as
A. complete proteins.
B. plant-based proteins.
C. essential amino acids.
D. free-form amino acids.
94. What term describes urban areas where it is difficult to afford or find quality whole foods?
A. Food deserts
B. Nutrient deficient zones
C. Poor consumption regions
D. Geographically food deficient
95. Which of the following is low in a client with hypoglycemia?
A. Low calcium
B. Low potassium
C. Low blood sugar
D. Low blood pressure
96. The most effective fuel source for producing ATP is
A. protein.
B. lactate.
C. glycogen.
D. fatty acid.
97. The main process in which heat is dissipated from the human body is
A. radiation.
B. convection.
C. conduction.
D. evaporation.
98. The three classifications of epithelial cells are: cuboidal, columnar, and
A. cylindrical.
B. epidermal.
C. pyramidal.
D. squamous.
99. The mineral category of electrolytes includes sodium, chloride, and
A. iodine.
B. calcium.
C. potassium.
D. magnesium.
100. Which of the following is a marketing statement that demands an immediate response from a recipient?
A. Banner ad
B. Advertorial
C. Call to action
D. Selling proposition
Bottom of Form
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image2.wmf
This part of your examination is worth 100 points AND consists of 100 Multiple Choice questions
Top of Form
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber?
A. Dissolves in stomach fluids
B. Is not a source of calories
C. Speeds up the movement of waste
D. Provides bulk for stool formation
2. Muscle cells serve as a reservoir for which of the following?
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Galactose
D. Raffinose
3. What effect do foods with a high glycemic index have on the body?
A. Increase fructose
B. Decrease water
C. Increase insulin
D. Decrease ghrelin
4. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?
A. Mannose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Cellulose
5. Which of the following is a simple sugar?
A. Oligosaccharides
B. Polysaccharides
C. Fructose
D. Glycogen
6. What is the recommended daily allowance of protein for a female client who is 30 years of age?
A. 2
4
B. 3
4
C. 4
6
D. 56
7. Which of the following food sources provides the highest amount of protein per 100-gram serving?
A. Hardboiled egg
B. Plain yogurt
C. Peanut butter
D. Beef sirloin
8. What part of the digestive system releases pepsin?
A. The mouth
B. The stomach
C. The large intestine
D. The small intestine
9. What effect does dietary protein have on the body?
A. Increases fructose
B. Decreases water
C. Increases insulin
D. Decreases ghrelin
10. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Tyrosine
D. Glutamine
11. How much of the adult human body is composed of water?
A. 1
0-20%
B. 30-40%
C. 50-60%
D. 80-90%
12. How many liters of water does the European Food Safety Authority recommend daily for men?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
13. Which of these urinary hydration biomarkers provides the best index of day to day hydration?
A. Urine color
B. Urine concentration
C. Plasma osmolality
D. Plasma volume
14. What hormone is primarily responsible for water reabsorption at the level of the kidney?
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin
C. Aldosterone
D. Arginine vasopressin
15. A diuretic effect has been observed when caffeine consumption exceeds how many milligrams per kilogram of body weight?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
16. Of the following types of exercise, which promotes a higher bone density when performed consistently?
A. Water aerobics
B. Lap swimming
C. Barbell training
D. Outdoor cycling
17. Minerals such as calcium function as a
A. phospholipid transporter.
B. fat metabolizer.
C. metalloenzyme.
D. enzyme cofactor.
18. Which mineral has been linked to dietary supplements for fat loss and muscle gain?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
19. Which mineral is known widely for its role in oral health?
A. Boron
B. Calcium
C. Fluoride
D. Molybdenum
20. Boron and molybdenum are essential nutrients classified as
A. cofactors.
B. antioxidants.
C. major minerals.
D. trace minerals.
21. Cholesterol is needed for the synthesis of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin D.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin K.
22. Which of the following is a precursor to vitamin D?
A. Choline
B. Lecithin
C. Cholesterol
D. Chylomicrons
23. Phospholipids are an important structural component of
A. the brain.
B. the liver.
C. muscles.
D. bones.
24. Consumption of trans fats can increase which of the following?
A. LDL
B. DHA
C. CLA
D. MCT
25. Which best illustrates the chronological order of the digestion of fat?
A. Pancreatic lipase, emulsification, micelles, blood, lymph
B. Pancreatic lipase, lymph, micelles, emulsification, blood
C. Lingual lipase, emulsification, micelles, lymph, blood
D. Lingual lipase, micelles, emulsification, lymph, blood
26. What vitamin is neither fat nor water-soluble?
A. Choline
B. Cobalamin
C. Folic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
27. The absorption of vitamin D can be improved when it is packaged in a formulation that is
A. water based.
B. oil based.
C. fiber based.
D. protein based.
28. A deficiency in what type of vitamin presents itself through symptoms of night blindness?
A. Cobalamin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Beta-carotene
D. Alpha-tocopherol
29. Which of the following foods is a dietary source of vitamin B12?
A. Egg
s
B. Beans
C. Spinach
D. Rice
30. Which of the following is a dietary source of vitamin C?
A. Organ meats
B. Collard greens
C. Wheat germ
D. Dairy products
31. Within a cell membrane, which of the following attaches directly to the lipid bilayer?
A. Glycolipids
B. Glycoproteins
C. Phospholipids
D. Carbohydrate chain
32. A bundle of 70-100, mostly undifferentiated human cells is a
A. axon.
B. neuron.
C. blastocyst.
D. chondrocyte
33. The process of replacing epithelial cells to maintain a protective barrier, is known as
A. sluffing.
B. shedding.
C. epidermization.
D. epithelialization.
34. Which type of muscle is responsible for involuntary muscle contraction in the organ systems?
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Striated muscle
35. Which organ system protects the body and is composed of skin, hair, and nails?
A. Nervous system
B. Endocrine system
C. Lymphatic system
D. Integumentary system
36. The energy released as the bonds that hold chemicals together are broken, is known as
A. caloric energy.
B. thermal energy.
C. chemical energy.
D. exothermic energy.
37. The energy expenditure associated with food digestion and absorption is the
A. basal metabolic rate (BMR).
B. thermic effect of food (TEF).
C. resting metabolic rate (RMR).
D. respiratory exchange ratio (RER).
38. Which of the following is an enzyme required by the process of rephosphorylation, to create ATP?
A. ADPase
B. ATPase
C. Polymerase
D. ATP Synthase
39. What three-carbon structure is formed by splitting a glucose molecule?
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactic acid
C. Creatine kinase
D. Phosphocreatine
40. How many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of fatty acids?
A. 22
B. 30 – 32
C. 44
D. 106
41. In which states is it legal for anyone to share nutrition education through materials originating from a public or well-known entity such as the American Heart Association, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and the American College of Nutrition?
A. Maryland and Utah
B. Arizona and Michigan
C. Florida and Wisconsin
D. California and New Mexico
42. Goals that are aligned with a client’s values, beliefs, and motivations are known as
A. SMART goals.
B. relevant goals.
C. topic-focused goals.
D. client-appropriate goals.
43. Within the SMART goals acronym, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Realistic
B. Recurring
C. Reachable
D. Reproducible
44. What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?
A. Health Insurance Professional Accountability Act
B. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
C. Health Information Professional Accountability Act
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
45. Individuals licensed as nutritional consultants
A. specialize in athletic settings such as fitness centers, gyms, and sports-medicine clinics.
B. work in medical facilities and institutions, planning meals and consulting on dietary needs.
C. are specifically trained to provide medical nutrition therapy in settings such as hospitals and long-term care facilities.
D. work in private practice and provide nutritional information through counseling, educational seminars, and working with corporations.
46. Which of the following can provide valuable insight to a nutrition coach, when attempting to establish motivation?
A. Food logs
B. Open-ended questions
C. Incentives and penalties
D. Before and after photos
47. The state of having complete understanding and knowledge of a subject or situation is referred to as
A. mastery.
B. autonomy.
C. knowledge.
D. understanding.
48. What is the goal of uncovering ambivalence?
A. To produce dialogue
B. To listen, rather than tell
C. To communicate respect for and acceptance of clients and their feelings
D. To create a discrepancy between what a person is currently doing, and where they would like to be
49. What is a good strategy to use when a client denies personal problems?
A. Reframing
B. Shifting focus
C. Amplified reflection
D. Agreement with a twist
50. What kind of questioning can help increase awareness of a client’s current level of motivation to change?
A. Closed questions
B. Scaling questions
C. Funneling questions
D. Convergent questions
51. Which of the following is a component of a physical assessment?
A. Weight
B. Initial goals
C. Client’s address
D. Emergency contact information
52. A goal of drinking only one cup of coffee per day is considered a
A. health goal.
B. medical goal.
C. physical goal.
D. behavior goal.
53. Even after cessation of a client’s program, it is recommended a coach maintain records for up to
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. three years.
D. four years.
54. Which of the seven goal-setting steps is the most important?
A. Acting
B. Establishing a timeline
C. Writing the goal(s) down
D. Determining the desired result
55. What does PARQ+ stand for?
A. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
B. Personal Activity Recommendation Quotient
C. Physical Assessment Recommendation Quotient
D. Personal Achievement Reevaluation Questionnaire
56. Which of the following is key for consistent marketing and branding?
A. An online presence
B. A focused business message
C. A professionally designed website
D. A well-designed, professional logo
57. Which type of business plan is used primarily for the owner and other employees to organize the structure, finances, and plans for future growth?
A. Lean business plan
B. Internal business plan
C. Traditional business plan
D. Highly detailed business plan
58. In sales, objections are
A. always bad.
B. considered “the nail in the coffin”.
C. a chance to earn a customer’s trust.
D. a sure sign the customer will not purchase.
59. What is the final stage in gaining a new client?
A. Evaluation
B. Programming
C. Closing the sale
D. Establishing goals
60. What is the first step of the Perfect Customer Life Cycle?
A. Awareness
B. Preparation
C. Contemplation
D. Pre-contemplation
61. Which of the following agencies create and update the Dietary Guidelines for Americans publication?
A. National Nutrition Agency (NNA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. Infant and Family Nutrition Agency (IFNA)
D. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
62. Which of the following is the current visual nutrition guide published by the USDA Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion?
A. MyPlate
B. MyPyramid
C. The Food Guide Pyramid
D. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
63. Nutrient density is usually measured per
A. 10 kilocalories.
B. 20 kilocalories.
C. 50 kilocalories.
D. 100 kilocalories.
64. What percentage of daily calories should the consumption of added sugars be limited to?
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
65. The recommended daily intake of sodium for people 14 years of age and older, is referred to as the
A. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
B. Permissible Consumption Limit
C. Adult Macronutrient Daily Requirement
D. Maximum Mineral Consumption Level
66. Abnormal or disturbed eating habits (once diagnosed) such as anorexia or binge-eating, are referred to as
A. emotional eating.
B. disordered eating.
C. an eating disorder.
D. psychological eating.
67. Which of the following questions is included in the SCOFF Questionnaire?
A. Do you desire to lose weight?
B. Has food ever made you sick?
C. Do you have any food allergies?
D. Would you say food dominates your life?
68. A person who is morbidly obese typically has a body mass index (BMI) of
A. at least 25.
B. at least 29.
C. 29 or higher.
D. 35 or higher.
69. One common cause of andropause is a deficiency of
A. zinc.
B. estrogen.
C. pregnenolone.
D. dihydrotestosterone.
70. Which of the following has been found to have a great effect on hormones and can affect the functioning of the body?
A. Sun exposure
B. Alcohol consumption
C. Use of a microwave oven
D. Consuming animal products
71. Which of the following is absorbed quicker into the body?
A. Caplets
B. Coated tablets
C. Uncoated tablets
D. Liquid-filled capsules
72. Which protein source contains lactose?
A. Egg
B. Pea
C. Soy
D. Casein
73. In what year was an official definition given to dietary supplements?
A. 1702
B. 1864
C. 1939
D. 1994
74. There are three common forms of commercially available supplemental protein: protein concentrates, protein isolates, and protein
A. flavanols.
B. flavonoids.
C. phosphates.
D. hydrolysates.
75. Which of the following is a mineralocorticosteroid?
A. Winstrol
B. Vasopressin
C. Testosterone
D. Deca-Durabolin
76. The principal display panel (PDP) front packaging must contain which of the following?
A. Serving size
B. Calories per serving
C. Macronutrient distribution
D. Claims and product features
77. Packages that are between one and two servings are required to label the calories and other nutrients
A. as one serving.
B. as two servings.
C. “per package”.
D. per 100 grams.
78. An unsaturated fatty acid resulting from hydrogenation is known as
A. trans fat.
B. alpha lipoic acid.
C. alpha linolenic acid.
D. eicosapentaenoic acid.
79. Which of the following is true regarding vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin C deficiency is now common.
B. Vitamin A deficiency is now common.
C. Americans lack sodium on a regular basis.
D. Americans lack potassium on a regular basis.
80. With regard to nutrient content claims, what does the acronym RACC stand for?
A. Registered Allowable Calories Consumed
B. Reference Amounts of Calories Consumed
C. Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed
D. Required Amounts Consumed by Customers
81. Which of the following diets does not allow for the consumption of any meat, poultry, fish, or eggs, but does include dairy?
A. Vegan
B. Pescatarian
C. Mediterranean
D. Lacto-vegetarian
82. While on the 5/2 intermittent fasting diet, the idea is to consume what percent (or less) of a normal day’s calories?
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 30 percent
83. What foods are avoided on the carnivore diet?
A. Poultry and dairy
B. Fin-fish and shellfish
C. Meats, eggs, and poultry
D. Dairy, low lactose foods, nuts, fruits, and grains
84. Gluten is a mix of proteins found in
A. soy and corn.
B. seeds and nuts.
C. wheat, rye, and barley.
D. sugar, beans, and dairy.
85. Carb cycling (high/low carb) is often used for what purpose?
A. Fast weight loss
B. Fast weight gain
C. Reduce A1C levels
D. Reduce blood pressure
86. Functional foods are divided into four categories: modified foods, conventional foods, medical foods, and
A. clinical foods.
B. special dietary foods.
C. unconventional foods.
D. non-genetically modified foods.
87. What is the most influential sense when consuming food?
A. Feel
B. Sight
C. Smell
D. Taste
88. While the amount diminishes over time, how many taste buds does every human have?
A. Between 1,000 and 2,000
B. Approximately 3,000
C. Between 9,000 and 10,000
D. Approximately 100,000
89. Small, vaporized molecules of food, detected by the human nose, are called
A. villus.
B. odor molecules.
C. volatile molecules.
D. olfactory molecules.
90. The 16/8 diet involves abstaining from food for:
A. 8 hours per day
B. 16 hours per day
C. 8 days per month
D. 16 days per month
91. What does the MyPlate tool use to represent how much the average American should consume?
A. Calories
B. Serving size
C. Food source
D. Servings per day
92. Diarrhea is a potential side effect of which botanical supplement?
A. Ginseng
B. Echinacea
C. Saw palmetto
D. Ginkgo biloba
93. High biological value proteins are classified as
A. complete proteins.
B. plant-based proteins.
C. essential amino acids.
D. free-form amino acids.
94. What term describes urban areas where it is difficult to afford or find quality whole foods?
A. Food deserts
B. Nutrient deficient zones
C. Poor consumption regions
D. Geographically food deficient
95. Which of the following is low in a client with hypoglycemia?
A. Low calcium
B. Low potassium
C. Low blood sugar
D. Low blood pressure
96. The most effective fuel source for producing ATP is
A. protein.
B. lactate.
C. glycogen.
D. fatty acid.
97. The main process in which heat is dissipated from the human body is
A. radiation.
B. convection.
C. conduction.
D. evaporation.
98. The three classifications of epithelial cells are: cuboidal, columnar, and
A. cylindrical.
B. epidermal.
C. pyramidal.
D. squamous.
99. The mineral category of electrolytes includes sodium, chloride, and
A. iodine.
B. calcium.
C. potassium.
D. magnesium.
100. Which of the following is a marketing statement that demands an immediate response from a recipient?
A. Banner ad
B. Advertorial
C. Call to action
D. Selling proposition
Bottom of Form
image1.wmf
image2.wmf
This part of your examination is worth 100 points AND consists of 100 Multiple Choice questions
Top of Form
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber?
A. Dissolves in stomach fluids
B. Is not a source of calories
C. Speeds up the movement of waste
D. Provides bulk for stool formation
2. Muscle cells serve as a reservoir for which of the following?
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Galactose
D. Raffinose
3. What effect do foods with a high glycemic index have on the body?
A. Increase fructose
B. Decrease water
C. Increase insulin
D. Decrease ghrelin
4. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?
A. Mannose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Cellulose
5. Which of the following is a simple sugar?
A. Oligosaccharides
B. Polysaccharides
C. Fructose
D. Glycogen
6. What is the recommended daily allowance of protein for a female client who is 30 years of age?
A. 2
4
B. 3
4
C. 4
6
D. 56
7. Which of the following food sources provides the highest amount of protein per 100-gram serving?
A. Hardboiled egg
B. Plain yogurt
C. Peanut butter
D. Beef sirloin
8. What part of the digestive system releases pepsin?
A. The mouth
B. The stomach
C. The large intestine
D. The small intestine
9. What effect does dietary protein have on the body?
A. Increases fructose
B. Decreases water
C. Increases insulin
D. Decreases ghrelin
10. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Tyrosine
D. Glutamine
11. How much of the adult human body is composed of water?
A. 1
0-20%
B. 30-40%
C. 50-60%
D. 80-90%
12. How many liters of water does the European Food Safety Authority recommend daily for men?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
13. Which of these urinary hydration biomarkers provides the best index of day to day hydration?
A. Urine color
B. Urine concentration
C. Plasma osmolality
D. Plasma volume
14. What hormone is primarily responsible for water reabsorption at the level of the kidney?
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin
C. Aldosterone
D. Arginine vasopressin
15. A diuretic effect has been observed when caffeine consumption exceeds how many milligrams per kilogram of body weight?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
16. Of the following types of exercise, which promotes a higher bone density when performed consistently?
A. Water aerobics
B. Lap swimming
C. Barbell training
D. Outdoor cycling
17. Minerals such as calcium function as a
A. phospholipid transporter.
B. fat metabolizer.
C. metalloenzyme.
D. enzyme cofactor.
18. Which mineral has been linked to dietary supplements for fat loss and muscle gain?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
19. Which mineral is known widely for its role in oral health?
A. Boron
B. Calcium
C. Fluoride
D. Molybdenum
20. Boron and molybdenum are essential nutrients classified as
A. cofactors.
B. antioxidants.
C. major minerals.
D. trace minerals.
21. Cholesterol is needed for the synthesis of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin D.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin K.
22. Which of the following is a precursor to vitamin D?
A. Choline
B. Lecithin
C. Cholesterol
D. Chylomicrons
23. Phospholipids are an important structural component of
A. the brain.
B. the liver.
C. muscles.
D. bones.
24. Consumption of trans fats can increase which of the following?
A. LDL
B. DHA
C. CLA
D. MCT
25. Which best illustrates the chronological order of the digestion of fat?
A. Pancreatic lipase, emulsification, micelles, blood, lymph
B. Pancreatic lipase, lymph, micelles, emulsification, blood
C. Lingual lipase, emulsification, micelles, lymph, blood
D. Lingual lipase, micelles, emulsification, lymph, blood
26. What vitamin is neither fat nor water-soluble?
A. Choline
B. Cobalamin
C. Folic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
27. The absorption of vitamin D can be improved when it is packaged in a formulation that is
A. water based.
B. oil based.
C. fiber based.
D. protein based.
28. A deficiency in what type of vitamin presents itself through symptoms of night blindness?
A. Cobalamin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Beta-carotene
D. Alpha-tocopherol
29. Which of the following foods is a dietary source of vitamin B12?
A. Egg
s
B. Beans
C. Spinach
D. Rice
30. Which of the following is a dietary source of vitamin C?
A. Organ meats
B. Collard greens
C. Wheat germ
D. Dairy products
31. Within a cell membrane, which of the following attaches directly to the lipid bilayer?
A. Glycolipids
B. Glycoproteins
C. Phospholipids
D. Carbohydrate chain
32. A bundle of 70-100, mostly undifferentiated human cells is a
A. axon.
B. neuron.
C. blastocyst.
D. chondrocyte
33. The process of replacing epithelial cells to maintain a protective barrier, is known as
A. sluffing.
B. shedding.
C. epidermization.
D. epithelialization.
34. Which type of muscle is responsible for involuntary muscle contraction in the organ systems?
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Striated muscle
35. Which organ system protects the body and is composed of skin, hair, and nails?
A. Nervous system
B. Endocrine system
C. Lymphatic system
D. Integumentary system
36. The energy released as the bonds that hold chemicals together are broken, is known as
A. caloric energy.
B. thermal energy.
C. chemical energy.
D. exothermic energy.
37. The energy expenditure associated with food digestion and absorption is the
A. basal metabolic rate (BMR).
B. thermic effect of food (TEF).
C. resting metabolic rate (RMR).
D. respiratory exchange ratio (RER).
38. Which of the following is an enzyme required by the process of rephosphorylation, to create ATP?
A. ADPase
B. ATPase
C. Polymerase
D. ATP Synthase
39. What three-carbon structure is formed by splitting a glucose molecule?
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactic acid
C. Creatine kinase
D. Phosphocreatine
40. How many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of fatty acids?
A. 22
B. 30 – 32
C. 44
D. 106
41. In which states is it legal for anyone to share nutrition education through materials originating from a public or well-known entity such as the American Heart Association, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and the American College of Nutrition?
A. Maryland and Utah
B. Arizona and Michigan
C. Florida and Wisconsin
D. California and New Mexico
42. Goals that are aligned with a client’s values, beliefs, and motivations are known as
A. SMART goals.
B. relevant goals.
C. topic-focused goals.
D. client-appropriate goals.
43. Within the SMART goals acronym, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Realistic
B. Recurring
C. Reachable
D. Reproducible
44. What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?
A. Health Insurance Professional Accountability Act
B. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
C. Health Information Professional Accountability Act
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
45. Individuals licensed as nutritional consultants
A. specialize in athletic settings such as fitness centers, gyms, and sports-medicine clinics.
B. work in medical facilities and institutions, planning meals and consulting on dietary needs.
C. are specifically trained to provide medical nutrition therapy in settings such as hospitals and long-term care facilities.
D. work in private practice and provide nutritional information through counseling, educational seminars, and working with corporations.
46. Which of the following can provide valuable insight to a nutrition coach, when attempting to establish motivation?
A. Food logs
B. Open-ended questions
C. Incentives and penalties
D. Before and after photos
47. The state of having complete understanding and knowledge of a subject or situation is referred to as
A. mastery.
B. autonomy.
C. knowledge.
D. understanding.
48. What is the goal of uncovering ambivalence?
A. To produce dialogue
B. To listen, rather than tell
C. To communicate respect for and acceptance of clients and their feelings
D. To create a discrepancy between what a person is currently doing, and where they would like to be
49. What is a good strategy to use when a client denies personal problems?
A. Reframing
B. Shifting focus
C. Amplified reflection
D. Agreement with a twist
50. What kind of questioning can help increase awareness of a client’s current level of motivation to change?
A. Closed questions
B. Scaling questions
C. Funneling questions
D. Convergent questions
51. Which of the following is a component of a physical assessment?
A. Weight
B. Initial goals
C. Client’s address
D. Emergency contact information
52. A goal of drinking only one cup of coffee per day is considered a
A. health goal.
B. medical goal.
C. physical goal.
D. behavior goal.
53. Even after cessation of a client’s program, it is recommended a coach maintain records for up to
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. three years.
D. four years.
54. Which of the seven goal-setting steps is the most important?
A. Acting
B. Establishing a timeline
C. Writing the goal(s) down
D. Determining the desired result
55. What does PARQ+ stand for?
A. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
B. Personal Activity Recommendation Quotient
C. Physical Assessment Recommendation Quotient
D. Personal Achievement Reevaluation Questionnaire
56. Which of the following is key for consistent marketing and branding?
A. An online presence
B. A focused business message
C. A professionally designed website
D. A well-designed, professional logo
57. Which type of business plan is used primarily for the owner and other employees to organize the structure, finances, and plans for future growth?
A. Lean business plan
B. Internal business plan
C. Traditional business plan
D. Highly detailed business plan
58. In sales, objections are
A. always bad.
B. considered “the nail in the coffin”.
C. a chance to earn a customer’s trust.
D. a sure sign the customer will not purchase.
59. What is the final stage in gaining a new client?
A. Evaluation
B. Programming
C. Closing the sale
D. Establishing goals
60. What is the first step of the Perfect Customer Life Cycle?
A. Awareness
B. Preparation
C. Contemplation
D. Pre-contemplation
61. Which of the following agencies create and update the Dietary Guidelines for Americans publication?
A. National Nutrition Agency (NNA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. Infant and Family Nutrition Agency (IFNA)
D. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
62. Which of the following is the current visual nutrition guide published by the USDA Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion?
A. MyPlate
B. MyPyramid
C. The Food Guide Pyramid
D. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
63. Nutrient density is usually measured per
A. 10 kilocalories.
B. 20 kilocalories.
C. 50 kilocalories.
D. 100 kilocalories.
64. What percentage of daily calories should the consumption of added sugars be limited to?
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
65. The recommended daily intake of sodium for people 14 years of age and older, is referred to as the
A. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
B. Permissible Consumption Limit
C. Adult Macronutrient Daily Requirement
D. Maximum Mineral Consumption Level
66. Abnormal or disturbed eating habits (once diagnosed) such as anorexia or binge-eating, are referred to as
A. emotional eating.
B. disordered eating.
C. an eating disorder.
D. psychological eating.
67. Which of the following questions is included in the SCOFF Questionnaire?
A. Do you desire to lose weight?
B. Has food ever made you sick?
C. Do you have any food allergies?
D. Would you say food dominates your life?
68. A person who is morbidly obese typically has a body mass index (BMI) of
A. at least 25.
B. at least 29.
C. 29 or higher.
D. 35 or higher.
69. One common cause of andropause is a deficiency of
A. zinc.
B. estrogen.
C. pregnenolone.
D. dihydrotestosterone.
70. Which of the following has been found to have a great effect on hormones and can affect the functioning of the body?
A. Sun exposure
B. Alcohol consumption
C. Use of a microwave oven
D. Consuming animal products
71. Which of the following is absorbed quicker into the body?
A. Caplets
B. Coated tablets
C. Uncoated tablets
D. Liquid-filled capsules
72. Which protein source contains lactose?
A. Egg
B. Pea
C. Soy
D. Casein
73. In what year was an official definition given to dietary supplements?
A. 1702
B. 1864
C. 1939
D. 1994
74. There are three common forms of commercially available supplemental protein: protein concentrates, protein isolates, and protein
A. flavanols.
B. flavonoids.
C. phosphates.
D. hydrolysates.
75. Which of the following is a mineralocorticosteroid?
A. Winstrol
B. Vasopressin
C. Testosterone
D. Deca-Durabolin
76. The principal display panel (PDP) front packaging must contain which of the following?
A. Serving size
B. Calories per serving
C. Macronutrient distribution
D. Claims and product features
77. Packages that are between one and two servings are required to label the calories and other nutrients
A. as one serving.
B. as two servings.
C. “per package”.
D. per 100 grams.
78. An unsaturated fatty acid resulting from hydrogenation is known as
A. trans fat.
B. alpha lipoic acid.
C. alpha linolenic acid.
D. eicosapentaenoic acid.
79. Which of the following is true regarding vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin C deficiency is now common.
B. Vitamin A deficiency is now common.
C. Americans lack sodium on a regular basis.
D. Americans lack potassium on a regular basis.
80. With regard to nutrient content claims, what does the acronym RACC stand for?
A. Registered Allowable Calories Consumed
B. Reference Amounts of Calories Consumed
C. Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed
D. Required Amounts Consumed by Customers
81. Which of the following diets does not allow for the consumption of any meat, poultry, fish, or eggs, but does include dairy?
A. Vegan
B. Pescatarian
C. Mediterranean
D. Lacto-vegetarian
82. While on the 5/2 intermittent fasting diet, the idea is to consume what percent (or less) of a normal day’s calories?
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 30 percent
83. What foods are avoided on the carnivore diet?
A. Poultry and dairy
B. Fin-fish and shellfish
C. Meats, eggs, and poultry
D. Dairy, low lactose foods, nuts, fruits, and grains
84. Gluten is a mix of proteins found in
A. soy and corn.
B. seeds and nuts.
C. wheat, rye, and barley.
D. sugar, beans, and dairy.
85. Carb cycling (high/low carb) is often used for what purpose?
A. Fast weight loss
B. Fast weight gain
C. Reduce A1C levels
D. Reduce blood pressure
86. Functional foods are divided into four categories: modified foods, conventional foods, medical foods, and
A. clinical foods.
B. special dietary foods.
C. unconventional foods.
D. non-genetically modified foods.
87. What is the most influential sense when consuming food?
A. Feel
B. Sight
C. Smell
D. Taste
88. While the amount diminishes over time, how many taste buds does every human have?
A. Between 1,000 and 2,000
B. Approximately 3,000
C. Between 9,000 and 10,000
D. Approximately 100,000
89. Small, vaporized molecules of food, detected by the human nose, are called
A. villus.
B. odor molecules.
C. volatile molecules.
D. olfactory molecules.
90. The 16/8 diet involves abstaining from food for:
A. 8 hours per day
B. 16 hours per day
C. 8 days per month
D. 16 days per month
91. What does the MyPlate tool use to represent how much the average American should consume?
A. Calories
B. Serving size
C. Food source
D. Servings per day
92. Diarrhea is a potential side effect of which botanical supplement?
A. Ginseng
B. Echinacea
C. Saw palmetto
D. Ginkgo biloba
93. High biological value proteins are classified as
A. complete proteins.
B. plant-based proteins.
C. essential amino acids.
D. free-form amino acids.
94. What term describes urban areas where it is difficult to afford or find quality whole foods?
A. Food deserts
B. Nutrient deficient zones
C. Poor consumption regions
D. Geographically food deficient
95. Which of the following is low in a client with hypoglycemia?
A. Low calcium
B. Low potassium
C. Low blood sugar
D. Low blood pressure
96. The most effective fuel source for producing ATP is
A. protein.
B. lactate.
C. glycogen.
D. fatty acid.
97. The main process in which heat is dissipated from the human body is
A. radiation.
B. convection.
C. conduction.
D. evaporation.
98. The three classifications of epithelial cells are: cuboidal, columnar, and
A. cylindrical.
B. epidermal.
C. pyramidal.
D. squamous.
99. The mineral category of electrolytes includes sodium, chloride, and
A. iodine.
B. calcium.
C. potassium.
D. magnesium.
100. Which of the following is a marketing statement that demands an immediate response from a recipient?
A. Banner ad
B. Advertorial
C. Call to action
D. Selling proposition
Bottom of Form
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This part of your examination is worth 100 points AND consists of 100 Multiple Choice questions
Top of Form
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber?
A. Dissolves in stomach fluids
B. Is not a source of calories
C. Speeds up the movement of waste
D. Provides bulk for stool formation
2. Muscle cells serve as a reservoir for which of the following?
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Galactose
D. Raffinose
3. What effect do foods with a high glycemic index have on the body?
A. Increase fructose
B. Decrease water
C. Increase insulin
D. Decrease ghrelin
4. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?
A. Mannose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Cellulose
5. Which of the following is a simple sugar?
A. Oligosaccharides
B. Polysaccharides
C. Fructose
D. Glycogen
6. What is the recommended daily allowance of protein for a female client who is 30 years of age?
A. 2
4
B. 3
4
C. 4
6
D. 56
7. Which of the following food sources provides the highest amount of protein per 100-gram serving?
A. Hardboiled egg
B. Plain yogurt
C. Peanut butter
D. Beef sirloin
8. What part of the digestive system releases pepsin?
A. The mouth
B. The stomach
C. The large intestine
D. The small intestine
9. What effect does dietary protein have on the body?
A. Increases fructose
B. Decreases water
C. Increases insulin
D. Decreases ghrelin
10. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Tyrosine
D. Glutamine
11. How much of the adult human body is composed of water?
A. 1
0-20%
B. 30-40%
C. 50-60%
D. 80-90%
12. How many liters of water does the European Food Safety Authority recommend daily for men?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
13. Which of these urinary hydration biomarkers provides the best index of day to day hydration?
A. Urine color
B. Urine concentration
C. Plasma osmolality
D. Plasma volume
14. What hormone is primarily responsible for water reabsorption at the level of the kidney?
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin
C. Aldosterone
D. Arginine vasopressin
15. A diuretic effect has been observed when caffeine consumption exceeds how many milligrams per kilogram of body weight?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
16. Of the following types of exercise, which promotes a higher bone density when performed consistently?
A. Water aerobics
B. Lap swimming
C. Barbell training
D. Outdoor cycling
17. Minerals such as calcium function as a
A. phospholipid transporter.
B. fat metabolizer.
C. metalloenzyme.
D. enzyme cofactor.
18. Which mineral has been linked to dietary supplements for fat loss and muscle gain?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
19. Which mineral is known widely for its role in oral health?
A. Boron
B. Calcium
C. Fluoride
D. Molybdenum
20. Boron and molybdenum are essential nutrients classified as
A. cofactors.
B. antioxidants.
C. major minerals.
D. trace minerals.
21. Cholesterol is needed for the synthesis of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin D.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin K.
22. Which of the following is a precursor to vitamin D?
A. Choline
B. Lecithin
C. Cholesterol
D. Chylomicrons
23. Phospholipids are an important structural component of
A. the brain.
B. the liver.
C. muscles.
D. bones.
24. Consumption of trans fats can increase which of the following?
A. LDL
B. DHA
C. CLA
D. MCT
25. Which best illustrates the chronological order of the digestion of fat?
A. Pancreatic lipase, emulsification, micelles, blood, lymph
B. Pancreatic lipase, lymph, micelles, emulsification, blood
C. Lingual lipase, emulsification, micelles, lymph, blood
D. Lingual lipase, micelles, emulsification, lymph, blood
26. What vitamin is neither fat nor water-soluble?
A. Choline
B. Cobalamin
C. Folic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
27. The absorption of vitamin D can be improved when it is packaged in a formulation that is
A. water based.
B. oil based.
C. fiber based.
D. protein based.
28. A deficiency in what type of vitamin presents itself through symptoms of night blindness?
A. Cobalamin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Beta-carotene
D. Alpha-tocopherol
29. Which of the following foods is a dietary source of vitamin B12?
A. Egg
s
B. Beans
C. Spinach
D. Rice
30. Which of the following is a dietary source of vitamin C?
A. Organ meats
B. Collard greens
C. Wheat germ
D. Dairy products
31. Within a cell membrane, which of the following attaches directly to the lipid bilayer?
A. Glycolipids
B. Glycoproteins
C. Phospholipids
D. Carbohydrate chain
32. A bundle of 70-100, mostly undifferentiated human cells is a
A. axon.
B. neuron.
C. blastocyst.
D. chondrocyte
33. The process of replacing epithelial cells to maintain a protective barrier, is known as
A. sluffing.
B. shedding.
C. epidermization.
D. epithelialization.
34. Which type of muscle is responsible for involuntary muscle contraction in the organ systems?
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Striated muscle
35. Which organ system protects the body and is composed of skin, hair, and nails?
A. Nervous system
B. Endocrine system
C. Lymphatic system
D. Integumentary system
36. The energy released as the bonds that hold chemicals together are broken, is known as
A. caloric energy.
B. thermal energy.
C. chemical energy.
D. exothermic energy.
37. The energy expenditure associated with food digestion and absorption is the
A. basal metabolic rate (BMR).
B. thermic effect of food (TEF).
C. resting metabolic rate (RMR).
D. respiratory exchange ratio (RER).
38. Which of the following is an enzyme required by the process of rephosphorylation, to create ATP?
A. ADPase
B. ATPase
C. Polymerase
D. ATP Synthase
39. What three-carbon structure is formed by splitting a glucose molecule?
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactic acid
C. Creatine kinase
D. Phosphocreatine
40. How many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of fatty acids?
A. 22
B. 30 – 32
C. 44
D. 106
41. In which states is it legal for anyone to share nutrition education through materials originating from a public or well-known entity such as the American Heart Association, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and the American College of Nutrition?
A. Maryland and Utah
B. Arizona and Michigan
C. Florida and Wisconsin
D. California and New Mexico
42. Goals that are aligned with a client’s values, beliefs, and motivations are known as
A. SMART goals.
B. relevant goals.
C. topic-focused goals.
D. client-appropriate goals.
43. Within the SMART goals acronym, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Realistic
B. Recurring
C. Reachable
D. Reproducible
44. What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?
A. Health Insurance Professional Accountability Act
B. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
C. Health Information Professional Accountability Act
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
45. Individuals licensed as nutritional consultants
A. specialize in athletic settings such as fitness centers, gyms, and sports-medicine clinics.
B. work in medical facilities and institutions, planning meals and consulting on dietary needs.
C. are specifically trained to provide medical nutrition therapy in settings such as hospitals and long-term care facilities.
D. work in private practice and provide nutritional information through counseling, educational seminars, and working with corporations.
46. Which of the following can provide valuable insight to a nutrition coach, when attempting to establish motivation?
A. Food logs
B. Open-ended questions
C. Incentives and penalties
D. Before and after photos
47. The state of having complete understanding and knowledge of a subject or situation is referred to as
A. mastery.
B. autonomy.
C. knowledge.
D. understanding.
48. What is the goal of uncovering ambivalence?
A. To produce dialogue
B. To listen, rather than tell
C. To communicate respect for and acceptance of clients and their feelings
D. To create a discrepancy between what a person is currently doing, and where they would like to be
49. What is a good strategy to use when a client denies personal problems?
A. Reframing
B. Shifting focus
C. Amplified reflection
D. Agreement with a twist
50. What kind of questioning can help increase awareness of a client’s current level of motivation to change?
A. Closed questions
B. Scaling questions
C. Funneling questions
D. Convergent questions
51. Which of the following is a component of a physical assessment?
A. Weight
B. Initial goals
C. Client’s address
D. Emergency contact information
52. A goal of drinking only one cup of coffee per day is considered a
A. health goal.
B. medical goal.
C. physical goal.
D. behavior goal.
53. Even after cessation of a client’s program, it is recommended a coach maintain records for up to
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. three years.
D. four years.
54. Which of the seven goal-setting steps is the most important?
A. Acting
B. Establishing a timeline
C. Writing the goal(s) down
D. Determining the desired result
55. What does PARQ+ stand for?
A. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
B. Personal Activity Recommendation Quotient
C. Physical Assessment Recommendation Quotient
D. Personal Achievement Reevaluation Questionnaire
56. Which of the following is key for consistent marketing and branding?
A. An online presence
B. A focused business message
C. A professionally designed website
D. A well-designed, professional logo
57. Which type of business plan is used primarily for the owner and other employees to organize the structure, finances, and plans for future growth?
A. Lean business plan
B. Internal business plan
C. Traditional business plan
D. Highly detailed business plan
58. In sales, objections are
A. always bad.
B. considered “the nail in the coffin”.
C. a chance to earn a customer’s trust.
D. a sure sign the customer will not purchase.
59. What is the final stage in gaining a new client?
A. Evaluation
B. Programming
C. Closing the sale
D. Establishing goals
60. What is the first step of the Perfect Customer Life Cycle?
A. Awareness
B. Preparation
C. Contemplation
D. Pre-contemplation
61. Which of the following agencies create and update the Dietary Guidelines for Americans publication?
A. National Nutrition Agency (NNA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. Infant and Family Nutrition Agency (IFNA)
D. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
62. Which of the following is the current visual nutrition guide published by the USDA Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion?
A. MyPlate
B. MyPyramid
C. The Food Guide Pyramid
D. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
63. Nutrient density is usually measured per
A. 10 kilocalories.
B. 20 kilocalories.
C. 50 kilocalories.
D. 100 kilocalories.
64. What percentage of daily calories should the consumption of added sugars be limited to?
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
65. The recommended daily intake of sodium for people 14 years of age and older, is referred to as the
A. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
B. Permissible Consumption Limit
C. Adult Macronutrient Daily Requirement
D. Maximum Mineral Consumption Level
66. Abnormal or disturbed eating habits (once diagnosed) such as anorexia or binge-eating, are referred to as
A. emotional eating.
B. disordered eating.
C. an eating disorder.
D. psychological eating.
67. Which of the following questions is included in the SCOFF Questionnaire?
A. Do you desire to lose weight?
B. Has food ever made you sick?
C. Do you have any food allergies?
D. Would you say food dominates your life?
68. A person who is morbidly obese typically has a body mass index (BMI) of
A. at least 25.
B. at least 29.
C. 29 or higher.
D. 35 or higher.
69. One common cause of andropause is a deficiency of
A. zinc.
B. estrogen.
C. pregnenolone.
D. dihydrotestosterone.
70. Which of the following has been found to have a great effect on hormones and can affect the functioning of the body?
A. Sun exposure
B. Alcohol consumption
C. Use of a microwave oven
D. Consuming animal products
71. Which of the following is absorbed quicker into the body?
A. Caplets
B. Coated tablets
C. Uncoated tablets
D. Liquid-filled capsules
72. Which protein source contains lactose?
A. Egg
B. Pea
C. Soy
D. Casein
73. In what year was an official definition given to dietary supplements?
A. 1702
B. 1864
C. 1939
D. 1994
74. There are three common forms of commercially available supplemental protein: protein concentrates, protein isolates, and protein
A. flavanols.
B. flavonoids.
C. phosphates.
D. hydrolysates.
75. Which of the following is a mineralocorticosteroid?
A. Winstrol
B. Vasopressin
C. Testosterone
D. Deca-Durabolin
76. The principal display panel (PDP) front packaging must contain which of the following?
A. Serving size
B. Calories per serving
C. Macronutrient distribution
D. Claims and product features
77. Packages that are between one and two servings are required to label the calories and other nutrients
A. as one serving.
B. as two servings.
C. “per package”.
D. per 100 grams.
78. An unsaturated fatty acid resulting from hydrogenation is known as
A. trans fat.
B. alpha lipoic acid.
C. alpha linolenic acid.
D. eicosapentaenoic acid.
79. Which of the following is true regarding vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin C deficiency is now common.
B. Vitamin A deficiency is now common.
C. Americans lack sodium on a regular basis.
D. Americans lack potassium on a regular basis.
80. With regard to nutrient content claims, what does the acronym RACC stand for?
A. Registered Allowable Calories Consumed
B. Reference Amounts of Calories Consumed
C. Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed
D. Required Amounts Consumed by Customers
81. Which of the following diets does not allow for the consumption of any meat, poultry, fish, or eggs, but does include dairy?
A. Vegan
B. Pescatarian
C. Mediterranean
D. Lacto-vegetarian
82. While on the 5/2 intermittent fasting diet, the idea is to consume what percent (or less) of a normal day’s calories?
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 30 percent
83. What foods are avoided on the carnivore diet?
A. Poultry and dairy
B. Fin-fish and shellfish
C. Meats, eggs, and poultry
D. Dairy, low lactose foods, nuts, fruits, and grains
84. Gluten is a mix of proteins found in
A. soy and corn.
B. seeds and nuts.
C. wheat, rye, and barley.
D. sugar, beans, and dairy.
85. Carb cycling (high/low carb) is often used for what purpose?
A. Fast weight loss
B. Fast weight gain
C. Reduce A1C levels
D. Reduce blood pressure
86. Functional foods are divided into four categories: modified foods, conventional foods, medical foods, and
A. clinical foods.
B. special dietary foods.
C. unconventional foods.
D. non-genetically modified foods.
87. What is the most influential sense when consuming food?
A. Feel
B. Sight
C. Smell
D. Taste
88. While the amount diminishes over time, how many taste buds does every human have?
A. Between 1,000 and 2,000
B. Approximately 3,000
C. Between 9,000 and 10,000
D. Approximately 100,000
89. Small, vaporized molecules of food, detected by the human nose, are called
A. villus.
B. odor molecules.
C. volatile molecules.
D. olfactory molecules.
90. The 16/8 diet involves abstaining from food for:
A. 8 hours per day
B. 16 hours per day
C. 8 days per month
D. 16 days per month
91. What does the MyPlate tool use to represent how much the average American should consume?
A. Calories
B. Serving size
C. Food source
D. Servings per day
92. Diarrhea is a potential side effect of which botanical supplement?
A. Ginseng
B. Echinacea
C. Saw palmetto
D. Ginkgo biloba
93. High biological value proteins are classified as
A. complete proteins.
B. plant-based proteins.
C. essential amino acids.
D. free-form amino acids.
94. What term describes urban areas where it is difficult to afford or find quality whole foods?
A. Food deserts
B. Nutrient deficient zones
C. Poor consumption regions
D. Geographically food deficient
95. Which of the following is low in a client with hypoglycemia?
A. Low calcium
B. Low potassium
C. Low blood sugar
D. Low blood pressure
96. The most effective fuel source for producing ATP is
A. protein.
B. lactate.
C. glycogen.
D. fatty acid.
97. The main process in which heat is dissipated from the human body is
A. radiation.
B. convection.
C. conduction.
D. evaporation.
98. The three classifications of epithelial cells are: cuboidal, columnar, and
A. cylindrical.
B. epidermal.
C. pyramidal.
D. squamous.
99. The mineral category of electrolytes includes sodium, chloride, and
A. iodine.
B. calcium.
C. potassium.
D. magnesium.
100. Which of the following is a marketing statement that demands an immediate response from a recipient?
A. Banner ad
B. Advertorial
C. Call to action
D. Selling proposition
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This part of your examination is worth 100 points AND consists of 100 Multiple Choice questions
Top of Form
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of soluble fiber?
A. Dissolves in stomach fluids
B. Is not a source of calories
C. Speeds up the movement of waste
D. Provides bulk for stool formation
2. Muscle cells serve as a reservoir for which of the following?
A. Fructose
B. Glucose
C. Galactose
D. Raffinose
3. What effect do foods with a high glycemic index have on the body?
A. Increase fructose
B. Decrease water
C. Increase insulin
D. Decrease ghrelin
4. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?
A. Mannose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Cellulose
5. Which of the following is a simple sugar?
A. Oligosaccharides
B. Polysaccharides
C. Fructose
D. Glycogen
6. What is the recommended daily allowance of protein for a female client who is 30 years of age?
A. 2
4
B. 3
4
C. 4
6
D. 56
7. Which of the following food sources provides the highest amount of protein per 100-gram serving?
A. Hardboiled egg
B. Plain yogurt
C. Peanut butter
D. Beef sirloin
8. What part of the digestive system releases pepsin?
A. The mouth
B. The stomach
C. The large intestine
D. The small intestine
9. What effect does dietary protein have on the body?
A. Increases fructose
B. Decreases water
C. Increases insulin
D. Decreases ghrelin
10. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
A. Histidine
B. Arginine
C. Tyrosine
D. Glutamine
11. How much of the adult human body is composed of water?
A. 1
0-20%
B. 30-40%
C. 50-60%
D. 80-90%
12. How many liters of water does the European Food Safety Authority recommend daily for men?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 2
D. 2.5
13. Which of these urinary hydration biomarkers provides the best index of day to day hydration?
A. Urine color
B. Urine concentration
C. Plasma osmolality
D. Plasma volume
14. What hormone is primarily responsible for water reabsorption at the level of the kidney?
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin
C. Aldosterone
D. Arginine vasopressin
15. A diuretic effect has been observed when caffeine consumption exceeds how many milligrams per kilogram of body weight?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
16. Of the following types of exercise, which promotes a higher bone density when performed consistently?
A. Water aerobics
B. Lap swimming
C. Barbell training
D. Outdoor cycling
17. Minerals such as calcium function as a
A. phospholipid transporter.
B. fat metabolizer.
C. metalloenzyme.
D. enzyme cofactor.
18. Which mineral has been linked to dietary supplements for fat loss and muscle gain?
A. Iron
B. Calcium
C. Chromium
D. Manganese
19. Which mineral is known widely for its role in oral health?
A. Boron
B. Calcium
C. Fluoride
D. Molybdenum
20. Boron and molybdenum are essential nutrients classified as
A. cofactors.
B. antioxidants.
C. major minerals.
D. trace minerals.
21. Cholesterol is needed for the synthesis of
A. vitamin A.
B. vitamin D.
C. vitamin E.
D. vitamin K.
22. Which of the following is a precursor to vitamin D?
A. Choline
B. Lecithin
C. Cholesterol
D. Chylomicrons
23. Phospholipids are an important structural component of
A. the brain.
B. the liver.
C. muscles.
D. bones.
24. Consumption of trans fats can increase which of the following?
A. LDL
B. DHA
C. CLA
D. MCT
25. Which best illustrates the chronological order of the digestion of fat?
A. Pancreatic lipase, emulsification, micelles, blood, lymph
B. Pancreatic lipase, lymph, micelles, emulsification, blood
C. Lingual lipase, emulsification, micelles, lymph, blood
D. Lingual lipase, micelles, emulsification, lymph, blood
26. What vitamin is neither fat nor water-soluble?
A. Choline
B. Cobalamin
C. Folic acid
D. Pantothenic acid
27. The absorption of vitamin D can be improved when it is packaged in a formulation that is
A. water based.
B. oil based.
C. fiber based.
D. protein based.
28. A deficiency in what type of vitamin presents itself through symptoms of night blindness?
A. Cobalamin
B. Pyridoxine
C. Beta-carotene
D. Alpha-tocopherol
29. Which of the following foods is a dietary source of vitamin B12?
A. Egg
s
B. Beans
C. Spinach
D. Rice
30. Which of the following is a dietary source of vitamin C?
A. Organ meats
B. Collard greens
C. Wheat germ
D. Dairy products
31. Within a cell membrane, which of the following attaches directly to the lipid bilayer?
A. Glycolipids
B. Glycoproteins
C. Phospholipids
D. Carbohydrate chain
32. A bundle of 70-100, mostly undifferentiated human cells is a
A. axon.
B. neuron.
C. blastocyst.
D. chondrocyte
33. The process of replacing epithelial cells to maintain a protective barrier, is known as
A. sluffing.
B. shedding.
C. epidermization.
D. epithelialization.
34. Which type of muscle is responsible for involuntary muscle contraction in the organ systems?
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Smooth muscle
C. Skeletal muscle
D. Striated muscle
35. Which organ system protects the body and is composed of skin, hair, and nails?
A. Nervous system
B. Endocrine system
C. Lymphatic system
D. Integumentary system
36. The energy released as the bonds that hold chemicals together are broken, is known as
A. caloric energy.
B. thermal energy.
C. chemical energy.
D. exothermic energy.
37. The energy expenditure associated with food digestion and absorption is the
A. basal metabolic rate (BMR).
B. thermic effect of food (TEF).
C. resting metabolic rate (RMR).
D. respiratory exchange ratio (RER).
38. Which of the following is an enzyme required by the process of rephosphorylation, to create ATP?
A. ADPase
B. ATPase
C. Polymerase
D. ATP Synthase
39. What three-carbon structure is formed by splitting a glucose molecule?
A. Pyruvate
B. Lactic acid
C. Creatine kinase
D. Phosphocreatine
40. How many ATP molecules are produced from the breakdown of fatty acids?
A. 22
B. 30 – 32
C. 44
D. 106
41. In which states is it legal for anyone to share nutrition education through materials originating from a public or well-known entity such as the American Heart Association, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, and the American College of Nutrition?
A. Maryland and Utah
B. Arizona and Michigan
C. Florida and Wisconsin
D. California and New Mexico
42. Goals that are aligned with a client’s values, beliefs, and motivations are known as
A. SMART goals.
B. relevant goals.
C. topic-focused goals.
D. client-appropriate goals.
43. Within the SMART goals acronym, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Realistic
B. Recurring
C. Reachable
D. Reproducible
44. What does the acronym HIPAA stand for?
A. Health Insurance Professional Accountability Act
B. Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act
C. Health Information Professional Accountability Act
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
45. Individuals licensed as nutritional consultants
A. specialize in athletic settings such as fitness centers, gyms, and sports-medicine clinics.
B. work in medical facilities and institutions, planning meals and consulting on dietary needs.
C. are specifically trained to provide medical nutrition therapy in settings such as hospitals and long-term care facilities.
D. work in private practice and provide nutritional information through counseling, educational seminars, and working with corporations.
46. Which of the following can provide valuable insight to a nutrition coach, when attempting to establish motivation?
A. Food logs
B. Open-ended questions
C. Incentives and penalties
D. Before and after photos
47. The state of having complete understanding and knowledge of a subject or situation is referred to as
A. mastery.
B. autonomy.
C. knowledge.
D. understanding.
48. What is the goal of uncovering ambivalence?
A. To produce dialogue
B. To listen, rather than tell
C. To communicate respect for and acceptance of clients and their feelings
D. To create a discrepancy between what a person is currently doing, and where they would like to be
49. What is a good strategy to use when a client denies personal problems?
A. Reframing
B. Shifting focus
C. Amplified reflection
D. Agreement with a twist
50. What kind of questioning can help increase awareness of a client’s current level of motivation to change?
A. Closed questions
B. Scaling questions
C. Funneling questions
D. Convergent questions
51. Which of the following is a component of a physical assessment?
A. Weight
B. Initial goals
C. Client’s address
D. Emergency contact information
52. A goal of drinking only one cup of coffee per day is considered a
A. health goal.
B. medical goal.
C. physical goal.
D. behavior goal.
53. Even after cessation of a client’s program, it is recommended a coach maintain records for up to
A. one year.
B. two years.
C. three years.
D. four years.
54. Which of the seven goal-setting steps is the most important?
A. Acting
B. Establishing a timeline
C. Writing the goal(s) down
D. Determining the desired result
55. What does PARQ+ stand for?
A. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire
B. Personal Activity Recommendation Quotient
C. Physical Assessment Recommendation Quotient
D. Personal Achievement Reevaluation Questionnaire
56. Which of the following is key for consistent marketing and branding?
A. An online presence
B. A focused business message
C. A professionally designed website
D. A well-designed, professional logo
57. Which type of business plan is used primarily for the owner and other employees to organize the structure, finances, and plans for future growth?
A. Lean business plan
B. Internal business plan
C. Traditional business plan
D. Highly detailed business plan
58. In sales, objections are
A. always bad.
B. considered “the nail in the coffin”.
C. a chance to earn a customer’s trust.
D. a sure sign the customer will not purchase.
59. What is the final stage in gaining a new client?
A. Evaluation
B. Programming
C. Closing the sale
D. Establishing goals
60. What is the first step of the Perfect Customer Life Cycle?
A. Awareness
B. Preparation
C. Contemplation
D. Pre-contemplation
61. Which of the following agencies create and update the Dietary Guidelines for Americans publication?
A. National Nutrition Agency (NNA)
B. Food and Drug Association (FDA)
C. Infant and Family Nutrition Agency (IFNA)
D. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and the US Department of Agriculture (USDA)
62. Which of the following is the current visual nutrition guide published by the USDA Center for Nutrition Policy and Promotion?
A. MyPlate
B. MyPyramid
C. The Food Guide Pyramid
D. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
63. Nutrient density is usually measured per
A. 10 kilocalories.
B. 20 kilocalories.
C. 50 kilocalories.
D. 100 kilocalories.
64. What percentage of daily calories should the consumption of added sugars be limited to?
A. 1 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
65. The recommended daily intake of sodium for people 14 years of age and older, is referred to as the
A. Tolerable Upper Intake Level
B. Permissible Consumption Limit
C. Adult Macronutrient Daily Requirement
D. Maximum Mineral Consumption Level
66. Abnormal or disturbed eating habits (once diagnosed) such as anorexia or binge-eating, are referred to as
A. emotional eating.
B. disordered eating.
C. an eating disorder.
D. psychological eating.
67. Which of the following questions is included in the SCOFF Questionnaire?
A. Do you desire to lose weight?
B. Has food ever made you sick?
C. Do you have any food allergies?
D. Would you say food dominates your life?
68. A person who is morbidly obese typically has a body mass index (BMI) of
A. at least 25.
B. at least 29.
C. 29 or higher.
D. 35 or higher.
69. One common cause of andropause is a deficiency of
A. zinc.
B. estrogen.
C. pregnenolone.
D. dihydrotestosterone.
70. Which of the following has been found to have a great effect on hormones and can affect the functioning of the body?
A. Sun exposure
B. Alcohol consumption
C. Use of a microwave oven
D. Consuming animal products
71. Which of the following is absorbed quicker into the body?
A. Caplets
B. Coated tablets
C. Uncoated tablets
D. Liquid-filled capsules
72. Which protein source contains lactose?
A. Egg
B. Pea
C. Soy
D. Casein
73. In what year was an official definition given to dietary supplements?
A. 1702
B. 1864
C. 1939
D. 1994
74. There are three common forms of commercially available supplemental protein: protein concentrates, protein isolates, and protein
A. flavanols.
B. flavonoids.
C. phosphates.
D. hydrolysates.
75. Which of the following is a mineralocorticosteroid?
A. Winstrol
B. Vasopressin
C. Testosterone
D. Deca-Durabolin
76. The principal display panel (PDP) front packaging must contain which of the following?
A. Serving size
B. Calories per serving
C. Macronutrient distribution
D. Claims and product features
77. Packages that are between one and two servings are required to label the calories and other nutrients
A. as one serving.
B. as two servings.
C. “per package”.
D. per 100 grams.
78. An unsaturated fatty acid resulting from hydrogenation is known as
A. trans fat.
B. alpha lipoic acid.
C. alpha linolenic acid.
D. eicosapentaenoic acid.
79. Which of the following is true regarding vitamin deficiency?
A. Vitamin C deficiency is now common.
B. Vitamin A deficiency is now common.
C. Americans lack sodium on a regular basis.
D. Americans lack potassium on a regular basis.
80. With regard to nutrient content claims, what does the acronym RACC stand for?
A. Registered Allowable Calories Consumed
B. Reference Amounts of Calories Consumed
C. Reference Amounts Customarily Consumed
D. Required Amounts Consumed by Customers
81. Which of the following diets does not allow for the consumption of any meat, poultry, fish, or eggs, but does include dairy?
A. Vegan
B. Pescatarian
C. Mediterranean
D. Lacto-vegetarian
82. While on the 5/2 intermittent fasting diet, the idea is to consume what percent (or less) of a normal day’s calories?
A. 10 percent
B. 15 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 30 percent
83. What foods are avoided on the carnivore diet?
A. Poultry and dairy
B. Fin-fish and shellfish
C. Meats, eggs, and poultry
D. Dairy, low lactose foods, nuts, fruits, and grains
84. Gluten is a mix of proteins found in
A. soy and corn.
B. seeds and nuts.
C. wheat, rye, and barley.
D. sugar, beans, and dairy.
85. Carb cycling (high/low carb) is often used for what purpose?
A. Fast weight loss
B. Fast weight gain
C. Reduce A1C levels
D. Reduce blood pressure
86. Functional foods are divided into four categories: modified foods, conventional foods, medical foods, and
A. clinical foods.
B. special dietary foods.
C. unconventional foods.
D. non-genetically modified foods.
87. What is the most influential sense when consuming food?
A. Feel
B. Sight
C. Smell
D. Taste
88. While the amount diminishes over time, how many taste buds does every human have?
A. Between 1,000 and 2,000
B. Approximately 3,000
C. Between 9,000 and 10,000
D. Approximately 100,000
89. Small, vaporized molecules of food, detected by the human nose, are called
A. villus.
B. odor molecules.
C. volatile molecules.
D. olfactory molecules.
90. The 16/8 diet involves abstaining from food for:
A. 8 hours per day
B. 16 hours per day
C. 8 days per month
D. 16 days per month
91. What does the MyPlate tool use to represent how much the average American should consume?
A. Calories
B. Serving size
C. Food source
D. Servings per day
92. Diarrhea is a potential side effect of which botanical supplement?
A. Ginseng
B. Echinacea
C. Saw palmetto
D. Ginkgo biloba
93. High biological value proteins are classified as
A. complete proteins.
B. plant-based proteins.
C. essential amino acids.
D. free-form amino acids.
94. What term describes urban areas where it is difficult to afford or find quality whole foods?
A. Food deserts
B. Nutrient deficient zones
C. Poor consumption regions
D. Geographically food deficient
95. Which of the following is low in a client with hypoglycemia?
A. Low calcium
B. Low potassium
C. Low blood sugar
D. Low blood pressure
96. The most effective fuel source for producing ATP is
A. protein.
B. lactate.
C. glycogen.
D. fatty acid.
97. The main process in which heat is dissipated from the human body is
A. radiation.
B. convection.
C. conduction.
D. evaporation.
98. The three classifications of epithelial cells are: cuboidal, columnar, and
A. cylindrical.
B. epidermal.
C. pyramidal.
D. squamous.
99. The mineral category of electrolytes includes sodium, chloride, and
A. iodine.
B. calcium.
C. potassium.
D. magnesium.
100. Which of the following is a marketing statement that demands an immediate response from a recipient?
A. Banner ad
B. Advertorial
C. Call to action
D. Selling proposition
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